Related provisions for SUP 15.3.16
1 - 20 of 292 items.
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:35(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to
The circumstances which may give rise to any of the events in SUP 15.3.1 R are wide-ranging and the probability of any matter resulting in such an outcome, and the severity of the outcome, may be difficult to determine. However, the appropriate regulator35 expects firms to consider properly all potential consequences of events.35
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the appropriate regulator35appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the appropriate regulator35 would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group3535
10Although PRIN does not apply to a firm in relation to its carrying on of auction regulation bidding, the FCA35expects to be given notice of events that are material to the FCA's35supervision of that business and so firms carrying on that business should have regard to the guidance in SUP 15.3.8 G to SUP 15.3.10 G.3535
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the appropriate regulator35 notice of:35(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the appropriate regulator35 may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the appropriate regulator.35 A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the appropriate regulator35
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, competition authority,
In determining whether a matter is significant, a firm should have regard to:(1) the size of any monetary loss or potential monetary loss to itself or its customers (either in terms of a single incident or group of similar or related incidents);(2) the risk of reputational loss to the firm; and(3) whether the incident or a pattern of incidents reflects weaknesses in the firm's internal controls.
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the appropriate regulator35 needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.35
3The Society must immediately inform the appropriate regulator35 in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the appropriate regulator35 may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:35(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:35(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or (2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.
15Changes that the FCA would expect to be notified of under SUP 15.3.26 R include:(1) an AIFM being appointed to manage another AIF;(2) the appointment of a different depositary for an AIF the AIFM manages; and(3) the appointment of any new senior personnel if the AIFM is not required to apply for the FCA's approval for that appointment under section 59 of the Act.
19A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA of material changes under SUP 15.3.26 R in the following manner:(1) for the management of a new AIF or a new investment compartment of an AIF, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6A R; (2) for changes of senior personnel whose appointment is not required to be approved by the FCA under section 59 of the Act, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6B R; and(3) for all other material changes, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6C R .
15Where a small authorised UK AIFM no longer meets the conditions in regulation 917 (meaning of “small AIFM”)19 of the AIFMD UK regulation it must:171619(1) immediately notify the FCA using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6D R;19 and(2) within 30 calendar days, apply to the FCA for a variation of its permission to become a full-scope UK AIFM.[Note: article 3(3) second and third paragraphs of AIFMD]
(1) 19A small authorised UK AIFM must notify the FCA before it starts to manage a new AIF or a new investment compartment of an AIF using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6A R.(2) (1) does not apply where:(a) the management of the new AIF or investment compartment would result in the AIFM exceeding the relevant threshold of assets under management so that it will no longer meet the conditions in regulation 9 (meaning of "small AIFM") of the AIFMD UK regulation (see SUP 15.3.28 R); or
(1) 19A small registered UK AIFM must notify the FCA of changes in the following manner:(a) for the management of a new AIF or a new investment compartment of an AIF, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6A R;(b) (a) does not apply where:(i) the management of the new AIF or investment compartment would result in the AIFM exceeding the relevant threshold of assets under management so that it will no longer meet the conditions in regulation 9 (meaning of "small AIFM") of the AIFMD
19A EuSEF manager or a EuVECA manager should notify the FCA of the following changes in the following manner:(1) for changes to senior personnel, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6B R; and (2) for changes to the jurisdiction in which its EuSEF or EuVECA is marketed or to market a new EuSEF or EuVECA, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6F G
(1) 21A firm must notify the FCA if it has or may have committed a significant infringement of any applicable competition law.(2) A firm must make the notification as soon as it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that a significant infringement has, or may have, occurred.(3) (a) A firm must make the notification in writing unless (3)(b) applies.(b) A firm may make the notification orally where it has made or will make an oral application for leniency
21A notification under SUP 15.3.32R should include:(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the infringement or possible infringement;(2) identification of the relevant law; and(3) information about any steps which the firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the infringement or prevent any future potential occurrence.
(1) 21Where a firm notifies the FCA under SUP 15.3.32R, the firm should not infer or assume that any lack of (or delay in) a response, objection or enforcement activity by the FCA or any other competition authority means that the agreement or conduct:(a) does not infringe competition law; or (b) is, or will be, immune from enforcement.(2) Notification under SUP 15.3.32R is not sufficient to constitute an application for leniency or immunity from penalty in any subsequent investigation
Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the UK firm, the requirements in regulation 11(2) are that:(1) the UK firm has given notice to the appropriate UK regulator17 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;17(2) the appropriate UK regulator17 has given the Host State regulator a notice informing it of the details of the change; and17(3) either the Host State regulator has informed the UK firm that it may make the change,
(1) 11If a UKfirm has exercised an EEA right under AIFMD and established a branch in another EEA State, the UKfirm must not make a material change in the requisite details of the branch or the identity of the AIFs it manages in the EEA State in which it has established a branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless: (a) it has complied with regulation 17A(4) for a planned change; or(b) it has complied with regulation 17A(5) for a unplanned change.(2) The requirements in regulation 17A(4)
(1) 13A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to establish a branch, must not make any material changes to the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice has elapsed.(3) Paragraph
(1) If the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, the UK firm:17(a) is required by regulation 11(3) or regulation 13(3) to give a notice to the appropriate UK regulator17 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable;17(b) may, if it is passporting under the Insurance Directives, make a change to its relevant UK details7 under regulation 15(1) if it has, as soon as practicable (whether before or after
When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK firm other than a MiFID investment firm7(see SUP 13.6.5 G (1) and SUP 13.6.7 G (1)) a pure reinsurer (see SUP 13.6.9B R) 8, a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD (see (SUP 13.6.9D G)13 or an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G)10it is required by regulations 11(4) and 13(4) to either refuse, or consent to the change within a period of one month7 from the day on which it received the notice.17107
If the appropriate UK regulator17 refuses to consent to a change, then under regulations 11(6) and 13(6):17(1) the appropriate UK regulator17 will give notice of the refusal to the UK firm, stating its reasons and giving an indication of the UK firm's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal and the procedures on such a reference; and17(2) the UK firm may refer the matter to the Tribunal.62
7When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.17
(1) 11When the FCA receives a notice from an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G) for a planned change and such change means the AIFM no longer complies with AIFMD, the FCA must inform the AIFM without undue delay that:(a) the FCA objects to the change, including reasons for its decision; and(b) the AIFM must not implement the change.In these circumstances the AIFM may refer the matter to the Tribunal.(2) If a planned change is implemented or an unplanned change takes place and results in
13When the FCA receives a notice from a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD it will, under regulation 17(B)(3), inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The UK firm in question may make the change once a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which it gave notice.
12A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing of its intention to issue a capital instrument which it intends to include within its capital resources at least one month before the intended date of issue, unless there are exceptional circumstances which make it impracticable to give such a period of notice, in which event the firm must give as much notice as is practicable in those circumstances. When giving notice, a firm must:(1) provide details of the amount of
12A firm must provide a further notification to the appropriate regulator in writing including all the information required in GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (4) as soon as it proposes any change to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, stage of capital or any other feature of the capital instrument to that previously notified to the appropriate regulator.
12If a firm proposes to establish a debt securities program for the issue of capital instruments for inclusion within its capital resources, it must: (1) notify the appropriate regulator of the establishment of the program; and(2) provide the information required by GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (4)at least one month before the first proposed drawdown. Any changes must be notified to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.61C R.
12A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing, no later than the date of issue, of its intention to issue a capital instrument listed in GENPRU 2.2.61E R which it intends to include within its capital resources. When giving notice, a firm must: (1) provide the information set out at GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (3); and(2) confirm that the terms of the capital instrument have not changed since the previous issue by the firm of that type of capital instrument.
12GENPRU 2.2.61B R provides that, in exceptional circumstances, a firm may provide less than one month's notice of the intended issue. The appropriate regulator is unlikely to consider circumstances to be exceptional unless they are such that there is a risk of a firm'scapital resources falling below its capital resources requirement if a one-month notification period is observed. In such circumstances, a firm should notify the appropriate regulator as soon as it has resolved
12Details of the notification to be provided by a BIPRU firm in relation to capital instruments issued by another undertaking in its group for inclusion in its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group are set out in BIPRU 8.6.1A R to BIPRU 8.6.1F R. Details of the notification to be provided by an insurer in relation to capital instruments issued by another undertaking in its group for inclusion in its group capital
4The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.64R (4) is to ensure that a firm retains flexibility over the payment of coupons and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (e.g. through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has notified the appropriate regulator that the instrument is in
A firm may not include a capital instrument in its tier one capital resources, unless its contractual terms are such that:(1) (if it is redeemable other than in circumstances set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (3)(a) (redemption on a winding up)) it is redeemable only at the option of the firm or, in the case of a BIPRU firm, on the date of maturity;88(2) the firm cannot exercise that redemption right:(a) before the fifth anniversary of its date of issue;(b) unless it has given notice
A firm must not redeem any tier one instrument that it has included in its tier one capital resources unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before it becomes committed to do so. When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such redemption in order to show how it will:77(1) meet its capital resources requirement;78(2) 7have sufficient financial resources to meet the overall financial adequacy rule; and8(3)
8The appropriate regulator considers that, in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.74 R, the firm should, at a minimum, provide the appropriate regulator with the following information:(1) a comprehensive explanation of the rationale for the redemption;(2) the firm's financial and solvency position before and after the redemption, in particular whether that redemption, or other foreseeable internal and external events or circumstances, may increase the risk of the firm breaching
8A BIPRU firm must not purchase a tier one instrument that it has included in its tier one capital resources unless:(1) the firm initiates the purchase;(2) 10[deleted]10(3) the firm has given notice to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79G R; and10(4) 10(in the case of hybrid capital) it is on or after the fifth anniversary of the date of issue of the instrument.
8A BIPRU firm must not purchase a tier one instrument in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79A R unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before it becomes committed to doing so. When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after the purchase in order to show how, over an appropriate timescale, adequately stressed, and without planned recourse to the capital markets, it will:(1) meet its capital resources requirement;
10A BIPRU firm must not announce to the holders of a tier one instrument its intention to purchase that instrument unless it has notified that intention to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79G R and it has not, during the period of one month from the date of giving notice, received an objection from the appropriate regulator.
10A BIPRU firm must not include in stage A of the capital resources table different classes of the same share type (for example "A ordinary shares" and "B ordinary shares") that meet the conditions in GENPRU 2.2.83 R and GENPRU 2.2.83A R but have differences in voting rights, unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before the shares are issued or (in the case of existing issued shares) the differences in voting rights take effect.
A firm which satisfies the conditions for the inclusion of capital set out in GENPRU 2.2.124 R, must, in addition, if that transaction is in any respect unusual, notify the appropriate regulator at least one Month in advance of the date on which the firm intends to include that capital in its capital resources.
A firm must not amend the terms of the capital or the documents referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (8) unless:(1) at least one Month before the amendment is due to take effect, the firm has given the appropriate regulator notice in writing of the proposed amendment and the appropriate regulator has not objected; and(2) that notice includes confirmation that the legal opinions referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (12) and, if applicable, GENPRU 2.2.163 R (General conditions for eligibility
In relation to a tier two instrument, a firm must notify the appropriate regulator:(1) in the case of an insurer, six Months; and(2) in the case of a BIPRU firm, one Month;before it becomes committed to7 the proposed repayment (unless that firm intends to repay an instrument on its final maturity date). When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such repayment in order to show how it will:777(3) meet its capital resources requirement; and7(4) have
(1) The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.177R (2) is to ensure that a firm which issues an item of capital with a coupon retains flexibility over the payments of such coupon and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (for example, through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FCA under LR 9.6.1 R or LR 9.6.2 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(2) A notification made under paragraph (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.
A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible (unless otherwise indicated in this rule) of the following information relating to its capital:(1) any proposed change in its capital structure including the structure of its listeddebt securities, save that an announcement of a new issue may be delayed while marketing or underwriting is in progress;(2) [deleted]11(3) any redemption of listedshares including details of the number of shares redeemed and the number of shares
Where the securities are subject to an underwriting agreement a listed company may, at its discretion and subject to DTR 2 (Disclosure and control of inside information by issuers), delay notifying a RIS as required by LR 9.6.4R (6) for up to two business days until the obligation by the underwriter to take or procure others to take securities is finally determined or lapses. In the case of an issue or offer of securities which is not underwritten, notification of the result must
A listed company must notify a RIS of any change to the board including:(1) the appointment of a new director stating the appointees name and whether the position is executive, non-executive or chairman and the nature of any specific function or responsibility of the position;(2) the resignation, removal or retirement of a director (unless the director retires by rotation and is re-appointed at a general meeting of the listed company's shareholders);(3) important changes to the
A listed company must notify a RIS of the following information in respect of any new director appointed to the board as soon as possible following the decision to appoint the director and in any event within five business days of the decision:(1) details of all directorships held by the director in any other publicly quoted company at any time in the previous five years, indicating whether or not he is still a director;(2) any unspent convictions in relation to indictable offences;(3)
A listed company which changes its name must, as soon as possible:(1) notify a RIS of the change, stating the date on which it has taken effect;(2) inform the FCA in writing of the change; and(3) where the listed company is incorporated in the United Kingdom, send the FCA a copy of the revised certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
12SUP 11 Annex 6G provides guidance on when one person's holding of shares or voting power must be aggregated with that of another person for the purpose of determining whether an acquisition or increase of control will take place as contemplated by section 181 or 182 of the Act such that notice must be given to the appropriate regulator17 in accordance with section 178 of the Act before making the acquisition or increase. This will be:17(1) where those persons are acting in concert,
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the appropriate regulator17 in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).46101710101010
The Treasury have made the following exemptions from the obligations under section 178 of the Act10:(1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/77410));10(2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change
6The appropriate regulator17 recognises that firms acting as investment managers may have difficulties in complying with the prior notification requirements in sections 178 and 191D 10of the Act as a result of acquiring or disposing of listed shares in the course of that fund management activity. To ameliorate these difficulties, the appropriate regulator17 may accept pre-notification of proposed changes in control, made in accordance with SUP D, and may grant approval of such
6The appropriate regulator17 may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 191D17 of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:171017(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed, or which are traded or admitted to trading on a MTF
6Where the appropriate regulator17 approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:17(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the appropriate regulator17 when a change in control actually occurs; and17(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.At
A section 178 notice10 given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the appropriate regulator17 for the relevant application. 4610171017
(1) A person who has submitted a section 178 notice10under SUP 11.3.7 D must notify the appropriate regulator17 immediately if he becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the appropriate regulator17 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed, in a material particular. The notification must include:101717(a) details of the information which is or may be false,
10A notice given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is reducing or ceasing to have control over a UK domestic firm, as set out in SUP 11.4.2Ror SUP 11.4.2A R must:17(1) be in writing; and(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.
A notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be given in writing, and in English, and must be submitted on the form specified for that notification rule, or if no form is specified, on the form inSUP 15 Ann 4 R3 (Notification form), and must give the firm's Firm Reference Number unless:237(1) the notification rule states otherwise; or(2) the notification is provided solely in compliance with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G).
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator7 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.7 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging
The appropriate regulator7 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the appropriate regulator7 on its behalf.77
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator;7 and7(2) delivered to the appropriate regulator7 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:77
7Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G |
2. |
Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
3. |
Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
4. |
Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA |
5. |
Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification |
6. |
Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk. |
7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:
- (1)
The Financial Conduct Authority
25 The North Colonnade London
Canary Wharf
E14 5HS
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or
- (2)
The Financial Conduct Authority
Quayside House 127
Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the appropriate regulator,7 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator,7 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).77
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the appropriate regulator7 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the appropriate regulator.7 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.77
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7no later than the end of that period; and 7(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 7
The appropriate regulator7 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the appropriate regulator.7 [For further details see the appropriate regulator's7 website.]777
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator.7 They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.7
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
A UK domestic firm,4 other than a non-directive firm, 4must notify the appropriate regulator6 of any of the following events concerning the firm:146(1) a person acquiring control;4(2) an existing controller increasing control4; 4(3) an existing controller reducing control4; 4(4) an existing controller ceasing to have control4.44
1A non-directive firm4(including, in the case of an FCA-authorised person, a firm with only a limited permission) 5must notify the appropriate regulator6 of any of the following events concerning the firm:46(1) a person becoming controller of the firm; or44(2) an existing controller ceasing to be controller of the firm.444
The notification by a firm under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R5 or SUP 11.4.4 R must:16(1) be in writing; (2) contain the information set out in:(a) in the case of acquiring or increasing control, SUP 11.5.1 R (subject to SUP 11.5); or (b) in the case of reducing control, SUP 11.5.7 R; and(3) be made:(a) as soon as the firm becomes aware that a person , whether alone or acting in concert, has decided to acquire control or to increase or reduce control4; or4(b) if the change in control4takes
Principle 11 requires firms to be open and cooperative with the appropriate regulator6. A firm should discuss with the appropriate regulator6, at the earliest opportunity, any prospective changes of which it is aware, in a controller's4or proposed controller's4shareholdings or voting power (if the change is material). These discussions may take place before the formal notification requirement in SUP 11.4.2 R or SUP 11.4.4 R arises. (See also SUP 11.3.2 G). As a minimum, the appropriate
The steps that the appropriate regulator6 expects a firm to take to comply with SUP 11.4.10 R include, if applicable:6(1) monitoring its register of shareholders (or equivalent);(2) monitoring notifications to the firm in accordance with Part 223 of the Companies Act 20063;33(3) monitoring public announcements made under the relevant disclosure provisions of the Takeover Code or other rules made by the Takeover Panel;2(4) monitoring the entitlement of delegates, or persons with
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in:10(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:10(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:1310(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the appropriate regulator's website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1)and SUP 13.7.6 G,15UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).151551515
(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)
1The notification rules in this chapter which apply to an RAP are without prejudice to notification rules which apply to a UK RIE which operates the RAP. However, a UK RIE which operates an RAP may make a single notification where a notification is required both in its capacity as a UK RIE and an RAP.
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
An insurance undertaking that effects contracts of insurance covering risks or commitments situated in another EEA State should comply with the notification procedures for the provision of services within that EEA State. The location of risks and commitments is found by reference to the rules set out in paragraph 6 of schedule 12 to the Act, which derive from article 1 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 2 of the Second Non-Life Directive. It may be appropriate for
The FCA and PRA are6 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business r
Where, however, a credit institution or MiFID investment firm:22(1) intends to send a member of staff or a temporarily authorised intermediary to the territory of another EEA State on a temporary basis to provide financial services; or(2) provides advice, of the type that requires notification under either MiFID or the Banking Consolidation Directive2, to customers in another EEA State;2 the firm should make a prior notification under the freedom to provide services.
The key distinction in relation to temporary activities is whether a firm should make its notification under the freedom of establishment in a Host State, or whether it should notify under the freedom to provide services into a Host State. It would be inappropriate to discuss such a complex issue in guidance of this nature. It is recommended that, where a firm is unclear on the distinction, it should seek appropriate advice. In either case, where a firm is carrying on activities
The FCA and PRA consider6 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA and PRA6 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls
(1) 2The FCA and PRA are6 of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:6(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
(1) 4Subject to (2A), a5firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fca.org.uk5 using the FCA'sONA6system.556(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) A firm must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) that relates to
4If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant-influence function for any firm or has not been subject to a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant-influence function
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
Where a recognised body is required to give any notice or information under any notification rule, it may do so (unless that rule expressly provides otherwise) orally or in writing, whichever is the more appropriate in the circumstances, but, where it gives notice or information orally, it must confirm that notice or information in writing promptly.
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA;11(2) delivered to the FCA1 by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.1
Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
(1) |
Post to the address in REC 3.2.4 R |
(2) |
Leaving the notification at the address in REC 3.2.4 R and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
(3) |
Electronic mail to an address for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt 1 |
(4) |
Hand delivery to the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 1 |
(5) |
Fax to a fax number for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA,1provided that the FCA1 receives a copy of the notification by one of methods (1) - (4) in this table within five business days after the date of the faxed notification 11 |
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the end of that period; and 1(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the first business day after the end of that period.1
A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the EUCRR as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.
When giving notice, the firm must provide: (1) details of the amount and type of own funds the firm is seeking to raise through the intended issue and whether the capital instrument is intended to be issued to external investors or other members of its group;(2) a copy of the term sheet and details of any features of the capital instrument which are novel, unusual or different from a capital instrument of a similar nature previously issued by the firm or widely available in the
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.
Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the requirements in regulation 4(4) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) the appropriate UK regulator12 has received a notice stating those details; and12(3) either:(a) the appropriate UK regulator12 has informed the firm that it may make the change;
Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the incoming EEA firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.3 G or SUP 14.2.8 G, inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions (regulation 4(6)).112
If the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, the firm is required by regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.2 G) or regulation 6(5) (see SUP 14.2.5 G (2)) to give a notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable.12
6The relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3) are that:(1) the EEA MiFID investment firm has given notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and(2) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the EEA MiFID investment firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.
6Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the EEA MiFID investment firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.11 G inform the EEA MiFID investment firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions. 12
10The relevant requirements in regulation 7B(4) are that: (1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA and its home state regulator stating the details of the proposed changes; and (2) either: (a) the FCA has informed the incoming EEA firm that it may make the change; or(b) a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which the incoming EEA firm gave the notice under (1).