Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11
161 - 180 of 832 items.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
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(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
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(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
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(b) |
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which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
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(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
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1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility complies with those requirements of Chapter I of Title II of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to a market operator operating such a facility, the FCA2 will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements.2
The FCA1 will consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
where it believes that such action will be a more effective and persuasive
deterrent than the imposition of a financial penalty alone. This is likely
to be the case where the FCA1 considers that direct and visible action in relation to a particular breach is necessary. Examples of circumstances
where the FCA1 may
consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction include:111(1) where the FCA1
The FCA1 expects usually to suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities directly linked to the breach.
However, in certain circumstances the FCA1 may also suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities that are not directly linked to the breach,
for example, where an authorised person's relevant
business area no longer exists or has been restructured.11
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA;11(2) delivered to the FCA1 by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.1
Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
(1) |
Post to the address in REC 3.2.4 R |
(2) |
Leaving the notification at the address in REC 3.2.4 R and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
(3) |
Electronic mail to an address for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt 1 |
(4) |
Hand delivery to the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 1 |
(5) |
Fax to a fax number for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA,1provided that the FCA1 receives a copy of the notification by one of methods (1) - (4) in this table within five business days after the date of the faxed notification 11 |
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the end of that period; and 1(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the first business day after the end of that period.1
Paragraph 12(1) of Part 2 of Schedule 1A to the Act enables the FCA to make rules requiring certain2authorised persons or payment service providers or electronic money issuers2 to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way in order to meet a proportion of:22(1) the expenses incurred by the FCA in establishing the CFEB, whenever these were incurred; and(2) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the CFEB in connection with the discharge
(1) Paragraph 9 of Schedule 4 of FSBRA allows the FCA to make rules requiring participants2 in regulated payment systems to pay the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way to:(a) meet the relevant costs referred to in (2) below; and (b) enable the PSR to maintain adequate reserves.(2) The relevant costs in (1)(a) means:(a) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the PSR in connection with the discharge of its functions;(b) the expenses incurred
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FCA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FCA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
The FCA6 may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:6(1) the FCA6 may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;6(2) some of the FCA's6 requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FCA6 will wish to
Under the investment condition, the reasonable investor is looking to satisfy two criteria. Both of these are fundamental to his decision to invest. But the thresholds referred to in PERG 9.6.1 G (1) and PERG 9.6.1 G (2) are different. In the FCA's view, a person expects something where he regards it as likely to happen or anticipates that events will turn out in a particular way. A person is satisfied of something where he has made up his mind or is persuaded that it is the case.
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FCA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
In the FCA's view, and within limits, the investment condition allows for the possibility that a body corporate that is an open-ended investment company may issue shares or securities with different characteristics. Some shares or securities may clearly satisfy the condition whereas others may not. The FCA considers that a reasonable investor contemplating investment in such a body corporate may still take the view, looking at the body corporate overall, that the investment condition
The FCA considers that the reference in PERG 9.6.5 G (3) to corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State will include provisions that derive from the maintenance of capital requirements of the Second Council Directive on co-ordination of safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies (77/91/EEC).
The FCA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FCA]3 may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 300E3 of the Act. 33 |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
The FCA3 will usually expect :3(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FCA3 that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person,
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the appropriate regulator8 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:8(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with
SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the appropriate regulator8 by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the appropriate regulator8 under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.88
(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online 8 using the appropriate regulator's8ONA5system.2885(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).2(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the appropriate regulator's8information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until
(1) If the appropriate regulator's8 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the appropriate regulator8 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.288(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency)
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1The FCA's assessment of a firm's satisfaction of this threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2F and 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act will not necessarily be limited to a firm'sregulated activities if the FCA believes the firm's other business activities, if any, may impact on a firm'sregulated activities.
(1) An insurer with a permission to effect or carry out life policies must submit to the FCA a persistency report in respect of life policies by 30 April each year in accordance with this section.11111118(2) A firm with permission to establish, operate or wind up a stakeholder pension scheme must submit to the FCA11:11(a) a data report on stakeholder pensions by 30 April each year using the form specified in SUP 16 Annex 6R.99(b) [deleted]99
(1) 9A firm may submit persistency and a data report for a 12 month period ending within 4 months of its accounting reference date if:(a) it has notified the FCA of this intention by email using the email address specified in SUP 16.3.10 G (3) no later than the firm'saccounting reference date; and(b) it either:(i) has an accounting reference date other than 31 December; or(ii) undertakes industrial assurance policy business.
1In this section, and in SUP 16 Annex 6R:9(1) '12 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-2, '24 month report' means the part of a persistency report or data report reporting on life policies or stakeholder pensions effected in Y-3, and so on;(2) 'CC' means the number of life policies or stakeholder pensions which: (a) were effected during the period to which the calculation relates; and(b)
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund may be carried out4 under this section, instead of by the
This table belongs to COLL 7.3.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.3)3
3Summary of the main steps in winding up a solvent ICVC or terminating a sub-fund3 under FCArules, assuming FCA approval. Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.3.8 R(4)) |
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Step number |
Explanation |
When |
COLL rule (unless stated otherwise) |
1 |
Commence preparation of solvency statement |
N-28 days |
7.3.5 (2) |
2 |
Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary |
By N + 21 days |
7.3.5 (4) and (5) |
3 |
Receive the FCA approval |
N + one month |
Regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations |
4 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders3 3 |
E |
7.3.6 |
5 |
Realise proceeds, wind up, instruct depositary accordingly |
ASAP after E |
7.3.7 |
6 |
Prepare final account or termination account & have account audited |
On completion of W/U or termination |
7.3.8 |
7 |
Send final account or termination account and auditor's report to the FCA & unitholders |
3 | 7.3.8(6) |
8 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order or update its records4 |
On completion of W/U or termination4 |
7.3.7(9) |
(1) An ICVC must not be wound up except:44(a) under this section; or4(b) as an unregistered company under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986.4(1A) 4A sub-fund must not:(a) be terminated except under this section; or(b) wound up except under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986 (as modified by regulation 33C of the OEIC Regulations) as an unregistered company.(2) An ICVC must not be wound up or a sub-fund terminated4 under this section if there is a vacancy in the position of ACD.
(1) Before notice is given to the FCA under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations of the proposals referred to in COLL 7.3.4 R (3), the directors must make a full enquiry into the ICVC's or, in the case of termination of a sub-fund, the sub-fund's4 affairs, business and property4 to determine whether the ICVC or the sub-fund4 will be able to meet all its liabilities. (2) The ACD must then, based on the results of this enquiry, prepare a statement either: (a) confirming that the
(1) [deleted]44(2) The ACD must, as soon as practicable after winding up or termination has commenced, cause the scheme property to be realised and the liabilities of the ICVC or the sub-fund to be met out of the proceeds.(3) The ACD must instruct the depositary how such proceeds (until utilised to meet liabilities or make distributions to unitholders) must be held and those instructions must be prepared with a view to the prudent protection of creditors and unitholders against
(1) Once the ICVC's affairs are wound up or termination of the sub-fund has been completed (including distribution or provision for distribution in accordance with COLL 7.3.7 R (5)),3 the ACD must prepare an account of the winding up or termination showing: 3(a) how it has been conducted; and(b) how the scheme property has been disposed of. (2) The account in (1) must be, if there is: (a) more than one director, approved by the board of directors and be signed on their behalf
(1) If: (a) during the course, or as a result, of the enquiry referred to in COLL 7.3.5 R (1) (Solvency statement), the directors become of the opinion that it will not be possible to provide the confirmation referred to in (2)(a) of that rule; or(b) after winding up or termination has commenced, the ACD becomes of the opinion that the ICVC or the sub-fund4 will be unable to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement provided under (a) of COLL 7.3.5
17The fees for funds8 reflect the estimated costs to the FCA of assessing applications and notifications. The level of fees payable in respect of an application or a notification will vary depending upon the provision of the Act under which it is made. This fee is adjusted when the scheme concerned is an umbrella.8
Applications for Part 4A permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) other than in respect of credit-related regulated activities7 are categorised by the appropriate regulator for the purpose of fee raising as straightforward, moderately complex and complex7 as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the appropriate regulator's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).7
A potential applicant for Part 4A permission17 (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the appropriate regulator17 before submitting it formally.2 If an applicant for Part 4A permission17 (or Treaty firm) does so, the appropriate regulator17 will be able to use that dialogue to make an initial assessment of the fee categorisation and therefore indicate the authorisation fee that should be paid. 171722171717
Application fees for applications for and variations of Part 4A permission in respect of credit-related regulated activities are also set out in FEES 3 Annex 1F. Applications for Part 4A permission in respect of credit-related regulated activities are categorised by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of fee raising as straightforward, moderately complex and complex as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1, unless the application is for a limited permission.7
This section applies to:(1) a firm that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; (2) a qualifying parent undertaking that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; and(3) an IFPRU 730k firm that is the subsidiary of the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group where: (a) the EEA parent undertaking is an EEA parent financial holding company or an EEA parent mixed financial holding company that is incorporated in, or formed under, the law of an EEA state other than the
If the RRD group includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (and does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm) the group recovery plan must include:(1) a summary of the key elements of the group recovery plan;(2) information on the governance of the group, including: (a) how the group recovery plan is integrated into the corporate governance of the group; and (b) the group's overall risk management framework;(3) a description of the
(1) A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the group recovery plan to its EEAconsolidating supervisor.(2) Where the consolidating supervisor is the FCA, a firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the group recovery plan in line with SUP 16.20 (Recovery plans and information for resolution plans).[Note: articles 6(1) and 7(1) of RRD]
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure dependent on the seriousness of the market abuse and whether or not it was referable to the individual’s employment. This reflects the FCA's3 view that where an individual has been put into a position where he can commit market abuse because of his employment the fine imposed should reflect this by reference to the gross amount of all benefits derived from that employment.33(2) In cases where the market abuse was referable to the individual’s
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the market abuse. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the market abuse:(a) the conduct of the individual in
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the market abuse, or others, from committing further or similar abuse then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the market abuse to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar
The FCA3 and the individual on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FCA3 and the individual concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step
This guidance is issued under section 139A of Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Action for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation
The characteristics that a reasonable investor can be expected to have will inform the use of judgment required by the 'expectation test' and the 'satisfaction test'. These tests relate to the investor's ability to realise an investment within a reasonable period and to do so on the basis of the net value of its assets. In the FCA's view, the characteristics of the reasonable investor include:(1) sound judgment based on good sense;(2) some knowledge of, and possibly experience
The reasonable investor is a hypothetical investor. The implications of this are that the test does not relate to actual investment by a particular person at a particular time or in relation to a particular issue of any class of shares or securities. In the FCA's view, what underlies the test is what a reasonable investor would think he was getting into if he were contemplating investment in a particular body corporate. In addition, because the investor is hypothetical, the investment
After an initial assessment, however, the FCA's view is that subsequent applications of the investment condition could produce a different result, but only if there is a change to the constitution or practice of the body corporate which is significant and sustained. For example, this may happen if there is a change in the body corporate's published intentions or regular practices. As the Economic Secretary to the Treasury said in parliamentary debate when commenting on the definition,
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FCA's view, this requires, for example,