Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
61 - 80 of 496 items.
24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
Under section 39824 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA: residual cases),24 it is an offence, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed by or under the Act (including the directions in SUP 6.4.5 D), for a person to knowingly or recklessly give the regulator24 information that is false or misleading. If necessary, a firm should take appropriate professional advice when supplying information required by the regulator(s).24 An insurer, for example, may ask an actuary to
A firm which is applying for cancellation ofPart 4A permission24 and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the appropriate regulator24 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.24 These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).2424
If an application for cancellation of a firm'sPart 4A permission has been granted and a firm's status as an authorised person has been withdrawn (see SUP 6.5) it will remain subject to certain investigative and enforcement powers as a former authorised person. These include:2424(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (seeEG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers)6);6(2) powers to apply
However, the following powers may not be used24 against former authorised persons:24(1) powers to take disciplinary action against firms by publishing statements of misconduct under section 205 of the Act (Public censure) or imposing financial penalties under section 206(1) of the Act (Financial penalties); and(2) the power to require firms to make restitution under section 384 of the Act (Power of FCA or PRA24 to require restitution).24
(1) Under section 55V(1)24of the Act (Determination of applications), the relevant regulator24 has six months to consider a completed application.2424(2) If the relevant regulator24 receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 55V(2) of the Act requires the relevant regulator24 to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.2424(3)
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FCA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
The FCA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FCA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
Most of the exclusions under the Directives, however, are not excluded from being regulated activities. For example, article 3 of the Consolidated Life Directive and article 3 of the Non-Life Directive exclude certain mutual associations whose annual contribution income falls below a defined threshold. In the United Kingdom, these include certain smaller friendly societies commonly referred to as "non-directive friendly societies". The activities of such societies are regulated
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
This exemption covers three6distinct situations. Article 16(1) applies to all exempt persons where they make financial promotions for the purpose of their exempt activities. These persons would include appointed representatives (except appointed representatives to whom the exemption in article 16(1A) applies; see PERG 8.12.12A G),6recognised investment exchanges, recognised clearing houses, recognised auction platforms5 and those who are able to take advantage of the Exemption
6Article 16(1A) applies to non-real time financial promotions and solicited real time financial promotions made:(1) by an appointed representative who is carrying on an activity to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D) of the Act; and(2) for the purposes of the appointed representative's business of carrying on a controlled activity which is also a regulated activity to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act
Article 16 (2) applies to unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an appointed representative in carrying on the business:(1) for which his principal has accepted responsibility for the purposes of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives); and(2) in relation to which the appointed representative is exempt under section 39.In addition, the financial promotion may only be made in the circumstances in which it could be made by the appointed representative'sprincipal
The purpose of these 1exemptions1 is to ensure that, subject to certain conditions, the restriction in section 21 of the Act does not apply to those who merely transport the financial promotions of other persons. Obvious examples here are postal and Internet service providers, courier companies and telecommunications companies. PERG 8.6.5 G explains that such persons may not be regarded as communicating a financial promotion simply because they have distributed it. Article 18
Financial promotions made only to or directed only at certain types of person who are sophisticated enough to understand the risks involved are exempt. These are:(1) authorised persons;(2) exempt persons (where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity which is a regulated activity for which the person is exempt);(3) governments and local authorities; and(4) persons whose ordinary business involves carrying on a controlled activity of the kind to which the financial
The broad scope of the restriction in section 21 of the Act will inevitably mean that it will, from time to time, apply to journalists and others who make their living from commenting on news including financial affairs (such as broadcasters). This is liable to happen when such persons offer share tips or recommend the use of a particular firm for investment purposes. Such tips or recommendations are likely to amount to inducements to engage in investment activity.
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FCA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FCA cannot
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, competition authority,
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the appropriate regulator35to:35(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Regulators’35 general duty);35(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:35(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
15Changes that the FCA would expect to be notified of under SUP 15.3.26 R include:(1) an AIFM being appointed to manage another AIF;(2) the appointment of a different depositary for an AIF the AIFM manages; and(3) the appointment of any new senior personnel if the AIFM is not required to apply for the FCA's approval for that appointment under section 59 of the Act.
19A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA of material changes under SUP 15.3.26 R in the following manner:(1) for the management of a new AIF or a new investment compartment of an AIF, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6A R; (2) for changes of senior personnel whose appointment is not required to be approved by the FCA under section 59 of the Act, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6B R; and(3) for all other material changes, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6C R .
The Act does not contain any definition of the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’, leaving them to their natural meaning. The ordinary dictionary entries for ‘invitation’ and ‘inducement’ offer several possible meanings to the expressions. An ‘invitation’ is capable of meanings ranging from merely asking graciously or making a request to encouraging or soliciting. The expression ‘inducement’ is given meanings ranging from merely bringing about to prevailing upon or persuading.
The Treasury, responding to consultation on the draft Financial Promotion Order, stated its intention that only communications containing a degree of incitement would amount to ‘inducements’ and that communications of purely factual information would not. This is provided the facts are presented in such a way that they do not also amount to an invitation or inducement. This was made clear both in the Treasury’s consultation document on financial promotion and during the passage
The FCA recognises that the matter cannot be without doubt. However, it is the FCA view that the context in which the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’ are used clearly suggests that the purpose of section 21 is to regulate communications which have a promotional element. This is because they are used as restrictions on the making of financial promotions which are intended to have a similar effect to restrictions on advertising and unsolicited personal communications in
The FCA considers that it is appropriate to apply an objective test to decide whether a communication is an invitation or an inducement. In the FCA's view, the essential elements of an invitation or an inducement under section 21 are that it must both have the purpose or intent of leading a person to engage in investment activity and be promotional in nature. So it must seek, on its face, to persuade or incite the recipient to engage in investment activity. The objective test
Merely asking a person if they wish to enter into an agreement with no element of persuasion or incitement will not, in the FCA's view, be an invitation under section 21. For example, the FCA does not consider an invitation to have been made where:(1) a trustee or nominee receives an offer document of some kind and asks the beneficial owner whether he wishes it to be accepted or declined;(2) a person such as a professional adviser enquires whether or not his client would be willing
An inducement may often be followed by an invitation or vice versa (in which case both communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act). An inducement may be described as a link in a chain where the chain is intended to lead ultimately to an agreement to engage in investment activity. But this does not mean that all the links in the chain will be an inducement or that every inducement will be one to engage in investment activity. Only those that are
Links on a website may take different forms. Some will be inducements. Some of these will be inducements under section 21 and others not. Links which are activated merely by clicking on a name or logo will not be inducements. The links may be accompanied by or included within a narrative or, otherwise, referred to elsewhere on the site. Whether or not such narratives or references are inducements will depend upon the extent to which they may seek to persuade or incite persons
Under section 296 of the Act (FCA's4 power to give directions) and (for RAPs) under regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognised body requirements. In the case of a UK RIE (including one which operates an RAP) 3those steps may include granting the FCA4 access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents
The FCA4 is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act or regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3 if it considers that:4(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that 1one or more of the recognised body requirements is3 satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying with the direction.
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), and (for RAPs) regulation 5(7) of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8) or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it reasonably necessary to do so. For RAPs, the FCA need not follow the procedure set out in regulation 5 of the RAP regulations or may cut short the procedure, if it considers it essential to do so.44
1Under subsections 292A(1) and (2) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after a recognition order is made in respect of it publish such particulars of the ownership of the UK RIE, including the identity and scale of interests of the persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE2or (where the UK RIE is also an RAP) the RAP, whether directly or indirectly, as the FCA3 may reasonably require.3
Under subsections 292A(3) and (4) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after becoming aware of a transfer of ownership of the UK RIE which gives rise to a change of persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE or (where the UK RIE is also an RAP) the RAP,2 whether directly or indirectly, publish such particulars of any such transfer as the FCA3 may reasonably require.3
1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) or of an EEA regulator under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator or
of the EEA regulator2 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FCA's3 statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction
under section 169(7) or
section 131FA2 has been given or the FCA3 is considering giving. The FCA3 is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by
section 169(9) and (11) and
section 131FA2 of the Act.
As required by section 169(10) and
section 131FA2 of the Act, the Treasury has approved
the statement of policy.333
The basic restriction on the communication of financial promotions is in section 21(1) of the Act. Sections 21(2) and (5) disapply the restriction in certain circumstances. Their combined effect is that a person must not, in the course of business, communicate an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity unless:(1) he is an authorised person; or(2) the content of the communication is approved for the purposes of section 21 by an authorised person; or(3) the communication
Section 21 of the Act does not itself (other than in its heading and side-note) refer to a ‘financial promotion’ but rather to the communication of ‘an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity’. References in this guidance to a financial promotion mean an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity.
Section 21 of the Act contains a number of key expressions or phrases which will determine whether or not it will apply. These are:(1) 'invitation or inducement' (see PERG 8.4);(2) 'in the course of business' (see PERG 8.5);(3) 'communicate' (see PERG 8.6);(4) 'engage in investment activity' (see PERG 8.7); and(5) 'having an effect in the United Kingdom' (see PERG 8.8).
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
An AIFM or an investment firm that acts in contravention of the marketing restrictions in regulations 49 to 51, or an AIFM that acts in contravention of a provision of the EuSEF regulation or the EuVECA regulation, is deemed to have been carrying out "unlawful marketing" under regulations 52 and 53. The consequences of carrying out unlawful marketing vary, depending on whether the AIFM or investment firm concerned is an authorised person or an unauthorised person.(1) If the AIFM
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
(1) The prospectus directive has not been amended by AIFMD and closed-ended AIFs that are making an offer of securities to the public as defined in the prospectus directive need to comply with the requirements under both Directives.(2) However, where the AIF is required to publish a prospectus under section 85 of the Act or the equivalent provision implementing article 3 of the Prospectus Directive in the AIF'sHome State, only information referred to in FUND 3.2.2 R and FUND 3.2.3
Paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 of2 the Act,7regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations, 22 regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations7and article 25(a) of the MCD Order22 enable the FCA18 to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy ,5FOS levies and CFEB levies5 are set out in FEES 6.1,5FEES 5.2 and FEES 7.1.4 G5 respectively. Case fees payable to the FOS Ltd are set out in FEES 5.5B.
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraph 23(7) 22 however, has not been included 22.7This is 22the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected to be received are not
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Rights under an agreement for qualifying credit are a controlled investment.Qualifying credit is defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order (Controlled activities) as credit provided pursuant to an agreement under which:(1) the lender is a person who carries on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (whether or not he is an authorised or exempt person under the Act); and(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured
Arranging qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10A of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, making arrangements:(1) for another person to enter as borrower into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(2) for a borrower under a regulated mortgage contract entered into on or after 31 October 2004 to vary the terms of that contract in such a way as to vary his obligations under that contract.This means that invitations and inducements relating
Advising on qualifying credit is8 a controlled activity under paragraph 10B of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, advising a person if the advice is:8(1) given to the person in his capacity as a borrower or potential borrower; and(2) advice on the merits of his doing any of the following:(a) entering into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(b) varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by him on or after 31 October 2004 in such a way
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans, home purchase plans,4regulated sale and rent back agreements3, certain consumer hire agreements and relevant credit agreements4. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:224(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of,
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
|
The requirements are that- |
|
(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirementsother than such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph3; |
(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
(c) |
the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
|
In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
|
(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the appropriate regulator's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition or section 20 (1) or (1A)5), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) . An authorised person also commits a criminal offence if he carries on a credit-related regulated activity in the UK, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission (unless the person is an appointed representative
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
If the Treasury designates a person as a designated guidance provider under section 333E(1)(e) of the Act in the course of a fee year, the following formula must be used to calculate the pensions guidance providers’ levy to be paid by that provider for that fee year:
(1) |
calculate the number of months between and including: |
||||
(i) |
the month in which the person became a designated guidance provider; and |
||||
(ii) |
the last month of the relevant fee year; |
||||
(2) |
divide the number of months calculated in (1) by 12; |
||||
(3) |
multiply the pension guidance providers’ levy set out in column (C) of row 5 of the table at FEES 11 Annex 1R by the number calculated in (2). |
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Section 6A(1) of the Act (Enhancing public understanding of financial matters etc) (as it had effect before the passing of the Financial Services Act 2012) required4 the FSA to establish the CFEB in order to enhance:4(1) the understanding and knowledge of members of the public of financial matters (including the UK financial system); and(2) the ability of members of the public to manage their own financial affairs.
Paragraph 12(1) of Part 2 of Schedule 1A to the Act enables the FCA to make rules requiring certain2authorised persons or payment service providers or electronic money issuers2 to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way in order to meet a proportion of:22(1) the expenses incurred by the FCA in establishing the CFEB, whenever these were incurred; and(2) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the CFEB in connection with the discharge