Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
461 - 480 of 496 items.
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
(1) A firm must ensure that a communication or a financial promotion is clear, fair, and not misleading. [Note: paragraphs 2.2 of ILG, 3.16 of DMG and 3.1 of CBG](1A) A firm must ensure that each communication and each financial promotion:3(a) is clearly identifiable as such;3(b) is accurate;3(c) is balanced and, in particular, does not emphasise any potential benefits of a product or service without also giving a fair and prominent indication of any relevant risks;3(d) is sufficient
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
Professional firms with practices that involve acting for claimants in litigation against insurance undertakings are likely to be carrying on the regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Exempt professional firms whose practices contain a material element of such activity should consider whether they can continue to take advantage of the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation, having regard to the relevant
(1) APER 1.1A.2 P refers to the authorised person in relation to which a person is an approved person. (2) Under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) there are two kinds of approved person. (3) Section 59(1) of the Act describes the first. It covers a person who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by an authorised person ("A"). In this case, APER 1.1A.2 P refers to A.(4) Section 59(2) of the Act describes the second. It covers
(1) This rule applies
if under the Act or under the
law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must
be approved and published for the securities;
or(b) the applicant is
permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for
the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must
have been approved by the FCA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA
State is the Home Member State for
the securities, the relevant
competent authority must have supplied the FCA with:(i)
SYSC 10.2.2 R is made under section 137P6 of the Act (Control of information rules). It has the following effect:6(1) acting in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2 R (1) provides a defence against proceedings brought under sections89(2), 90(1) and 91(1) 4of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Misleading statements, Misleading impressions and Misleading statements etc. in relation to benchmarks) - see sections 89(3)(b), 90(9)(c) and 91(3)(b).444(2) behaviour in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2
2This chapter applies to a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on any of the activities:(1) insurance mediation activity;(2) home finance mediation activity;1unless any of the following exemptions apply:1(3) in relation to insurance mediation activity, this chapter does not apply to a firm if another authorised person which has net tangible assets of more than £10 million provides a comparable guarantee; for this purpose:(a) if the firm is a member of a group in which there
(1) This paragraph applies to an undertaking that would be a third country BIPRU firm if it were authorised under the Act.(2) Except in exceptional circumstances, it is the appropriate regulator's policy that it will not give an overseas applicant a Part 4A permission unless the appropriate regulator is satisfied that the applicant will be subject to prudential regulation by its home state regulatory body that is broadly equivalent to that provided for in the Handbook and the
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FCA; and(b) be carrying
A notice of intention3 (other than one to establish a branch or provide services in another EEA state under the auction regulation)7 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services
(1) The total amount payable by a person subject to enforcement action may be made up of two elements: (i) disgorgement of the benefit received as a result of the breach; and (ii) a financial penalty reflecting the seriousness of the breach. These elements are incorporated in a five-step framework, which can be summarised as follows:(a) Step 1: the removal of any financial benefit derived directly from the breach;(b) Step 2: the determination of a figure which reflects the seriousness
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
A firm may include amounts recoverable from an ISPV in the cash flows to be valued in a prospective valuation if it obtains a waiver of INSPRU 1.2.28 R under sections 138A and 138B of the Act. The conditions that will need to be met, in addition to the statutory tests under section 138A(4) of the Act, before the PRA will consider granting such a waiver are set out in INSPRU 1.6.13 G to INSPRU 1.6.18 G.
8Regulated activities covered by a limited permission (see the "relevant credit activities" set out in paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) do not fall within the scope of articles 5 and 6 of the Consumer Credit Directive, therefore GEN 4.3.7 R and the guidance related to it are not relevant to those activities.