Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
441 - 460 of 512 items.
(1) Where it is compatible with the nature of the obligation imposed by a particular rule and with the Principles, in particular Principles 1 (Integrity), 2 (Skill, care and diligence) and 3 (Management and control), firms may rely on third parties in order to comply with the rules in this sourcebook.(2) For example, where a rule requires a firm to take reasonable steps to achieve an outcome, it will generally be reasonable for a firm to rely on information provided to it in writing
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules implementing provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of that
(1) This rule applies whenever the instrument of incorporation of an ICVC provides, in relation to any class, for smaller denomination shares and larger denomination shares.(2) Whenever a registered holding includes a number of smaller denomination shares that can be consolidated into a larger denomination share of the same class, the ACD must consolidate the relevant number of those smaller denomination shares into a larger denomination share.(3) The ACD may, to effect a transaction
1LR 15.2.6 R and LR 15.4.6 R are not intended to require the closed-ended investment fund to be able to control or direct the master fund or intermediary (as the case may be). But if the closed-ended investment fund becomes aware that the master fund or intermediary (as the case may be) is not investing or managing its investments in accordance with that rule it will need to immediately consider withdrawal of its funds from the master fund or intermediary (as the case may be)
BIPRU 12.2 provides that an ILAS BIPRU firm must ensure that its liquidity resources contain an adequate buffer of high quality, unencumbered assets. BIPRU 12.7 describes in more detail the nature of the assets that are eligible for inclusion in that buffer. The rules in this section provide that some types of assets are eligible for use only by a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm.
This chapter contains rules on reverse stress testing, which require a firm to identify and assess events and circumstances that would cause its business model to become unviable. This chapter also requires the firm's senior management or governing body to review and approve the results of the reverse stress testing exercise. This should help the firm's senior management to identify the firm's vulnerabilities and design a strategy to prevent or mitigate the risk of business f
(1) An exempt full scope IFPRU investment firm2 is a full-scope IFPRU investment firm2 that at all times has total net assets which are less than or equal to £50 million.22(2) In this rule, total net assets are the sum of a firm's total trading book assets and its total non-trading book assets, less the sum of its called up share capital, reserves and minority interests.(3) For the purpose of (2), the value attributed to each of the specified balance sheet items must be that which
The documents in CASS 11.12.3 R that a CASS debt management firm must include within its CASS 11 resolution pack are:(1) a master document containing information sufficient to retrieve each document in the firm'sCASS 11 resolution pack;(2) a document which identifies all the approved banks with whom client money may be deposited;(3) a document which identifies each appointed representative, field representative or other agent of the firm which may receive client money in its capacity
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator15 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 158(2) to implement
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
The notice required by CONC 7.17.4 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that the notice is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with the sums payable under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) (a) the name, telephone number or numbers, the postal address, and, where appropriate, any other address of the firm;
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
The amount of credit provided under an agreement for high-cost short-term credit for the purposes of CONC 5A.3.3 R (Initial cost cap) is the amount of credit outstanding on the day in question under the agreement, disregarding for the purposes of that rule the effect of the borrower discharging all or part of the borrower's indebtedness in accordance with section 94 of the CCA (right to complete payments ahead of time) by repayment of credit before the date provided for in the
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
(1) Subject to (2), a CASS debt management firm must make and retain an appropriate record of the person to whom responsibility is allocated in accordance with, as applicable, CASS 11.3.1 R, CASS 11.3.2 R, and CASS 11.3.4 R.(2) A CASS small debt management firm must make and retain such a record only where it allocates responsibility to a person other than the person in that firm who performs the compliance oversight function.(3) A CASS debt management firm must ensure that a