Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
101 - 120 of 496 items.
The arrangements which grant rights under alternative debentures are similar to the tax definition of arrangements relating to alternative finance investment bonds at section 48A of the Finance Act 2005 (see www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts2007/ukpga_20070011_en_5#pt3-pb9-l1g53). However the purposes of the two provisions are not the same. One of the objectives of the FCA under the Act is consumer protection. Accordingly, secondary legislation made under the Act, like article 77A
As these arrangements might amount to a collective investment scheme (see PERG 9.4.2 GG for a broad description) a consequential amendment to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Scheme) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) has been made so that, like conventional bonds, alternative debentures are excluded from the definition of collective investment scheme.
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme or authorised contractual scheme10, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships and all limited partnership schemes10. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not
There are no exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order for this specified investment category. This is because 'collective investment scheme' is defined in section 235 of the Act (Collective investment schemes) for the purposes of the Act generally. But there is a separate power to provide for exemptions from that definition and the Treasury have exercised it (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062). The result
4All contracts in this category are cash-settled instruments (as opposed to being settled by way of delivering something other than cash). Many would be unenforceable as gaming contracts were it not for section 412 of the Act (Gaming contracts). Examples of instruments that count as specified investments under this category are spread bets and interest rate swaps.
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
11A local authority (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) is exempt from the financial promotion restriction (that is, the restriction in section 21 of the Act) for a communication which is a non-real time financial promotion or a solicited real time financial promotion. However, this exemption does not apply to a communication which relates to a regulated credit agreement, where entering into the agreement or exercising, or having the right to exercise, the lender’s rights and
This exemption disapplies the restriction in section 21 of the Act from non-real time financial promotions or solicited real time financial promotions which are made to a person who the communicator believes on reasonable grounds to be a certified high net worth individual and which relate to certain investments. These investments must be either:7(1) shares in or debentures or alternative debentures7 of an unlisted company; or(2) warrants,certificates representing certain securities,
The second exemption in article 50A disapplies the restriction in section 21 of the Act from any financial promotions4 which are made to a person who the communicator believes on reasonable grounds to be a self-certified sophisticated investor and which relate to one or more of the specified investments in PERG 8.14.21G (1) to (3) (Certified high net worth individuals (article 484)).44
11The financial promotion restriction (that is, the restriction in section 21 of the Act) does not apply to a communication which is a non-real time financial promotion or a solicited real time financial promotion by an insolvency practitioner who acts in that capacity (see the definition of “acting as an insolvency practitioner” in article 3 of the Regulated Activities Order). The exemption only applies where the communication is made in the course of carrying on an activity
6The exemptions described in PERG 8.14.40A G to PERG 8.14.40AEA G9 should enable employers (and their contracted service providers) to promote employee benefits packages that include any pension schemes, work-related insurance schemes,9staff mortgages and certain staff loans9 to employees without undue concern that they may be breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act. PERG 8.14.34 G (Communications by employers and contracted service providers to employees) has further
The FCA’s pensions guidance costs are defined in section 333Q(4) (Funding of FCA’s pensions guidance costs) of the Act as the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the FCA in connection with carrying out the functions conferred on it in Part 20A of the Act (other than the functions specified in 333R of the Act).
(1) Section 333Q(1) of the Act requires the FCA to make rules requiring designated guidance providers, or any specified class of designated guidance provider to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way.(2) Section 333Q(3) of the Act sets out that such amounts may include a component to cover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the payments and to enable the FCA to maintain an adequate reserve.
Under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 may, by giving a written notice, itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report, or 2require any of the following persons to provide it with a report by a skilled person:2(1) a firm; (2) any other member of the firm's group; (3) a partnership of which the firm is a member; (4) a person who has at any relevant time been a person falling within (1), (2) or (3);but only if the person
Energy market participants should bear in mind that3sections 138A and 138B of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FCA4 must be satisfied that:4344(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of any of the FCA's operational objectives.44
Where the FCA1 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order, it will discuss its concerns with the applicant with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application. If the FCA1 decides to refuse to make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) (which applies in consequence of section 290(5) of the Act (Recognition orders)) which
(1) 1Under sections 312E and 312F of the Act, if the FCA considers that a recognised body has contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA under any provision of the Act that relates to a RIE, or under any provision of the Act whose contravention constitutes an offence the FCA has power to prosecute, or by a qualifying EU provision specified by the Treasury, it may: (a) publish a statement to that effect; or(b) impose on the body a financial penalty of such amount as it considers
(1) Under section 192K of the Act, if the FCA considers that a qualifying parent undertaking of a UK RIE has contravened a requirement of a direction given by the FCA under section 192C of the Act, or a provision of rules made by the FCA under section 192J of the Act, it may:(a) impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on the qualifying parent undertaking of the UK RIE, or any person who was knowingly concerned in the contravention; or(b) publish a statement
The FCA will try to notify the applicant
of its decision on an application for approval of listing
particulars or supplementary
listing particulars within the same time limits as are specified
in section 87C of the Act (consideration
of application for approval) for an application for approval of a prospectus or supplementary
prospectus.
Information is needed to support the FCA's1 risk based approach to the supervision of all regulated entities. Risk based supervision is intended to ensure that the allocation of supervisory resources and the supervisory process are compatible with the regulatory objectives and the FCA's1 general duties under the Act. The central element of the process of risk based supervision is a systematic assessment by the FCA1 (a risk assessment) of the main supervisory risks and concerns
For each UK recognised body, the FCA1 will conduct a periodic risk assessment. This assessment will take into account relevant considerations including the special position of recognised bodies under the Act, the nature of the UK recognised body's members, the position of other users of its facilities and the business environment more generally.1
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying for Part 4A permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may be seeking
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
If a prospectus relating
to an issuer that has its registered
office in a country that is not an EEA State is
drawn up in accordance with the legislation of that country, the FCA may, if the United
Kingdom is the Home State in
relation to the issuer, approve
the prospectus if it is satisfied
that:(1) the prospectus has
been drawn up in accordance with international standards set by international
securities commission organisations, including the IOSCO disclosure standards;
and(2)
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
If it appears to the FCA or PRA5 that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and5 may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively5 of the Act. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified may be found on the FCA5 website (http://www.fca.org.uk5).53325555
The waivers regime is overseen by a staff committee. Its responsibility is to ensure that the giving of waivers is in accordance with the requirements of the Act, of the guidance in SUP 8 and of other relevant guidance. Decisions on individual applications are made under arrangements designed to result in rapid, responsive and well-informed decision making. The arrangements include arrangements for collective decision making to set general policies, and, as necessary, determine
1If the appropriate regulator2, in the course of carrying on supplementary supervision of a financial conglomerate, is considering exercising its powers under section 138A2 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), regulation 4 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations contains special provisions. The appropriate regulator2 must, in broad terms, do two things. Where required by those regulations, it must obtain the consent of the relevant competent authorities of the group.
Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons6) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the appropriate regulator6 of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm.3 Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the appropriate regulator's approval6 before becoming a controller or increasing
As the approval of the appropriate regulator6 is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator6 still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings
Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
1The position of an unauthorised person (‘U’) who, in the course of business, causes an authorised person to communicate a financial promotion is somewhat different. This is because the authorised person (‘A’) is not subject to section 21 of the Act and so will not necessarily be communicating the financial promotion in circumstances in which an exemption would apply. To avoid any doubt about the application of section 21 to U, a specific exemption is provided in article 17A of
Section 21(1) of the Act refers only to the communication of an invitation or inducement. It says nothing about communications being 'made to' or 'directed at' persons or about who the 'recipient' of a communication will be. These facts are determined by the following sequence:(1) section 21(13) of the Act indicates that communications are 'made';(2) article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order (Interpretation: communications) indicates that communications are made by being 'addressed
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
(1) 2The FCAthreshold conditions apply to a person that carries on, or seeks to carry on, only relevant credit activities (within paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) and which therefore has, or is applying for, limited permission with a number of modifications (see article 10(19) of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order). Regulated activities a person carries on in relation to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D)