Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
81 - 100 of 460 items.
(1) 15A must be a fit and proper person having regard to all the circumstances, including-(a) A’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that A’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers and the integrity of the UK financial system;(d) whether A has complied and is complying with requirements imposed
(1) 15B must be a fit and proper person, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether B satisfies the condition in sub-paragraph (1) include-(a) B’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that B carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that B’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
(1) 1Part 6 (Marketing) of the AIFMD UK regulation contains restrictions on an AIFM or an investment firmmarketing an AIF. Such a person may not market an AIF in the UK unless the relevant conditions set out in the AIFMD UK regulation are met.(2) The purpose of this section is to give guidance on: (a) the restrictions on an AIFM or investment firmmarketing an AIF (PERG 8.37.2 G and PERG 8.37.3 G);(b) the circumstances in which an AIFM or an investment firmmarkets an AIF (PERG
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
(1) Under article 31 AIFMD, an AIFM is required to submit the documentation and information in Annex III to AIFMD with its application for permission to market an AIF managed by it and to notify their competent authority of any material changes to this documentation and information. Therefore, the prescribed documentation and information should be in materially final form before the AIFM may apply for permission to market an AIF. Any communications relating to this draft documentation
(1) The restrictions on the marketing of an AIF in regulations 49 to 51 only apply to marketing that takes place in the UK. In addition, under regulation 45, an AIFM or an investment firm only markets an AIF if the investor is domiciled in an EEA State or has its registered office in an EEA State.(2) Under regulation 2(2)(a) (Interpretation), the reference to ‘domicile’ should be construed in line with its meaning in AIFMD, ie its meaning under EU law. This may be different to
Regulation 48 (Marketing under the designation "EuSEF" and "EuVECA") provides that regulations 49 to 51 do not apply to the marketing of an AIF under the designation "EuSEF" and "EuVECA". To be designated as such the AIFM of the AIF is required to apply for registration of the AIF with its Home State under the EuSEF regulation or the EuVECA regulation (and in the UK make a notification under regulation 14 (Notification of new funds under the EuSEF Regulation or the EuVECA Regulation)).
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part 4A permission, or any requirements,8 on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its appropriate supervisory contact(s). This8 may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.88
A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission,8 wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.8
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must have effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of itsregulatory functions. |
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(2) |
But sub-paragraph (1) does not extend to - |
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(a) |
complaints about the content of rules made by the [UK RIE], or |
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(b) |
complaints about a decision against which the complainant has the right to appeal under procedures of the kind mentioned in paragraph 8(2)(b). |
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(3) |
The arrangements must include arrangements for a complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by apersonindependent of the [UK RIE], and for him to report on the result of his investigation to the [UK RIE] and to the complainant. |
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(4) |
The arrangements must confer on thepersonmentioned in sub-paragraph (3) the power to recommend, if he thinks appropriate, that the [UK RIE] - |
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(a) |
makes a compensatory payment to the complainant, |
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(b) |
remedies the matter complained of, |
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or takes both of those steps. |
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(5) |
Sub-paragraph (3) is not to be taken as preventing the [UK RIE] from making arrangements for the initial investigation of a complaint to be conducted by the [UK RIE]. |
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In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:3(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
The FCA and PRA are6 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business r
In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm
The FCA and PRA consider6 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA and PRA6 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls
(1) 2The FCA and PRA are6 of the opinion that where a UK firm becomes a member of:6(a) a regulated market that has its registered office or, if it has no registered office, its head office, in another EEA State; or(b) an MTF operated by a MiFID investment firm or a market operator in another EEA State,2the same principles as in the 'characteristic performance' test should apply. Under this test, the fact that a UK firm has a screen displaying the regulated market's or the MTF's
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
(1) 1The general application rule in ICOBS 1.1.1 R applies to this section subject to the modifications in (2).(2) This section applies to:(a) any firm solely with respect to the activities of:(i) carrying out contracts of insurance; or(ii) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's;in relation to general insurance contracts and, in either case, including business accepted under reinsurance to close;(b) all incoming EEA firms or incoming
The purpose of ICOBS 8.4 is to assist individuals with claims arising out of their course of employment in the United Kingdom for employers carrying on, or who carried on, business in the United Kingdom, to identify an insurer or insurers that provided employers' liability insurance (other than certain co-insurance and excess cover arrangements)2 by requiring insurers to produce an employers’ liability register and to conduct effective searches for historical policies3. In particular
(1) A firm carrying out contracts of insurance, or a managing agent managing insurance business, including in either case business accepted under reinsurance to close, which includes United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance, must:(a) produce an employers’ liability register complying with the requirements in (2) and ICOBS 8 Annex 1;(b) obtain and submit to the FCA2 a written statement, by a director of the firm responsible for the production of the employers’
3A firm with actual or potential liability for United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance claims must take reasonable steps to conduct effective searches of their records when they receive a request to carry out a search for a historical policy from persons falling into one of the categories in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c) or a tracing office which meets the conditions in ICOBS 8.4.9 R.
(1) 3Where a firm has established that a historical policy does exist, the response should confirm what cover was provided and set out any available information that is relevant to the request received.(2) Where there is evidence to suggest that a historical policy does exist, but the firm is unable to confirm what cover was provided, the response should set out any information relevant to the request and describe the next steps (if any) the firm will take to continue the search.
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of
An EEA firm3(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)31should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) This section does not apply to an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.
In complying with SYSC 4.3.1 R (Responsibility of senior personnel), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that its senior personnel:(1) are responsible for the implementation of the general investment policy for each scheme it manages, as defined, where relevant, in the prospectus or the instrument constituting the fund;22(2) oversee the approval of investment strategies for each scheme it manages;(3)
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that its senior personnel receive, on a regular basis, reports on the implementation of investment strategies and of the internal procedures for taking the investment decisions referred to in COLL 6.10.2R (2) to COLL 6.10.2R (5).[Note: article 9(5) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(f)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
appropriate measures (including the monitoring of transactions effected on the [UK RIE]) are adopted to reduce the extent to which the [UK RIE's ]facilities can be used for a purpose connected withmarket abuse orfinancial crime, and to facilitate their detection and monitor their incidence; |
In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FCA,3 or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial
Section 21(3) of the Act states that, in the case of a communication originating outside the United Kingdom, the restriction in section 21(1) applies only if it is capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. In this respect, it is irrelevant whether the communication has an effect provided it is capable of doing so.
This appears to give a potentially broad jurisdictional scope to section 21. It seems clear that a communication which originates overseas will be capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom if it is an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is communicated to a person in the United Kingdom. It would seem that communications made in other circumstances may also be capable of having an effect in the United Kingdom. However, the exemption for communications
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations2 to give directions
(1) Where a firm is required to submit a4 notice of a change to a branch referred to in 2SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5BG (1), 2SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G2, SUP 13.6.9B R3SUP 13.6.10 G (1) and SUP 13.6.9C G or4 a notice of a change to cross border services referred to in2SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG (1), 2SUP 13.7.5 G (1)SUP 13.7.6 G2, SUP 13.7.13B G6 and SUP 13.7.14 G7it must complete and submit that notice in accordance with the procedures set out in SUP 13.5 for notifying
4The effect of SUP 13.8.1 R (1) is that a firm should submit any form, notice or application under SUP 13.8.1 R (1) in the following ways:(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, should submit it online at www.fca.org.uk16 using the ONA8system.16168(2) If the information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm should submit it in the way set out in SUP 13.5.3 R
Examples of where SUP 10A.6.8 R might apply include (but are not limited to):(1) a chairman of an audit committee of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm where that audit committee is working for that UK firm (that is, functioning as the audit committee for the group); or(2) a director (other than a non-executive director) of a parent undertaking or holding company of a UK firm exercising significant influence by way of his involvement in taking decisions for that
Examples of where SUP 10A.6.13 R might apply include (but are not limited to):(1) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company who takes an active role in the running of the business of a UK firm, for example, as a member of a board or committee (on audit or remuneration) of that firm; or(2) an individual who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company having significant influence in setting and monitoring
This function is having the responsibility, alone or jointly with one or more others, under the immediate authority of the governing body:(1) for the conduct of the whole of the business (or relevant activities); or(2) in the case of a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, for the conduct of all of the activities subject to the UKregulatory system.
For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the appropriate regulator9) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm or the activities of an EEA UCITS management company,4 it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom. 9
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(g)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
where the [UK RIE's]facilitiesinclude making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of thosefacilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
Where a UK recognised body arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the recognition requirement in Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations (see REC 2.2).