Related provisions for SUP 3.6.1

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COLL 6.8.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund must have:(a) an annual accounting period;33(b) a half-yearly accounting period; and(c) an accounting reference date.(2) A half-yearly accounting period begins when3 an annual accounting period begins3 and ends on:13(a) the day which is six months before the last day of that annual accounting period; or(b) some other reasonable date as set out in the prospectus of the scheme.1(3) The first annual accounting period of a scheme must begin:(a) on the first
CONC 10.3.2RRP

Table: Items which are eligible to contribute to the prudential resources of a firm

Item

Additional explanation

1

Share capital

This must be fully paid and may include:

(1)

ordinary share capital; or

(2)

preference share capital (excluding preference shares redeemable by shareholders within two years).

2

Capital other than share capital (for example, the capital of a sole trader, partnership or limited liability partnership)

The capital of a sole trader is the net balance on the firm's capital account and current account. The capital of a partnership is the capital made up of the partners':

(1)

capital account, that is the account:

(a)

into which capital contributed by the partners is paid; and

(b)

from which, under the terms of the partnership agreement, an amount representing capital may be withdrawn by a partner only if:

(i) he ceases to be a partner and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former partners or any person replacing him as their partner; or

(ii) he ceases to be a partner and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former partners or any person replacing him as their partner; or

(iii) the partnership is otherwise dissolved or wound up; and

(2)

current accounts according to the most recent financial statement.

For the purpose of the calculation of capital resources in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme:

(1)

a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(2)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm'sdeficit reduction amount, provided that the election is applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

3

Reserves (Note 1)

These are, subject to Note 1, the audited accumulated profits retained by the firm (after deduction of tax, dividends and proprietors' or partners' drawings) and other reserves created by appropriations of share premiums and similar realised appropriations. Reserves also include gifts of capital, for example, from a parent undertaking.

For the purposes of calculating capital resources, a firm must make the following adjustments to its reserves, where appropriate:

(1)

a firm must deduct any unrealised gains or, where applicable, add back in any unrealised losses on debt instruments held, or formerly held, in the available-for-sale financial assets category;

(2)

a firm must deduct any unrealised gains or, where applicable, add back in any unrealised losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments measured at cost or amortised cost;

(3)

in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme:

(a)

a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(b)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm'sdeficit reduction amount, provided that the election is applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

4

Interim net profits (Note 1)

If a firm seeks to include interim net profits in the calculation of its capital resources, the profits have, subject to Note 1, to be verified by the firm's external auditor, net of tax, anticipated dividends or proprietors' drawings and other appropriations.

5

Revaluation reserves

6

Subordinated loans/debt

Subordinated loans/debts must be included in capital on the basis of the provisions in this chapter that apply to subordinated loans/debts.

Note:

1

Reserves must be audited and interim net profits, general and collective provisions must be verified by the firm's external auditor unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 1985 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)) or, where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.
CREDS 10.1.3GRP

Module

Relevance to Credit Unions

The Principles for Businesses (PRIN)

The Principles for Businesses (PRIN) set out, high-level requirements, some of which are imposed by the FCA and some by the PRA.12 They provide a general statement of regulatory requirements. The Principles apply to all12credit unions. In applying the Principles to credit unions, the appropriate regulator12 will be mindful of proportionality. In practice, the implications are likely to vary according to the size of the credit union.

121212

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls (SYSC)

SYSC 1 and SYSC 4 to 10 apply to all credit unions in respect of the carrying on of their regulated activities and unregulated activities in a prudential context. SYSC 18 applies to all credit unions without restriction.

Threshold Conditions (COND)

In order to become authorised under the Act all firms must meet the threshold conditions. The threshold conditions must be met on a continuing basis by credit unions. Failure to meet one of the conditions is sufficient grounds for the exercise by the appropriate regulator12 of its powers.

1212

Statements of Principle and Code of Practice for Approved Persons (APER)

The purpose of the Statements of Principle contained in APER 2 is to provide guidance to approved persons in relation to the conduct expected of them in the performance of a controlled function. The Code of Practice for Approved Persons sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the opinion of the appropriate regulator12, do not comply with a Statement of Principle and, in the case of Statement of Principle 3, conduct which tends to show compliance within that statement.

12

The Fit and Proper test for Approved Persons (FIT)

The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that the appropriate regulator12 will consider when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person in respect of whom an application is being made for approval to undertake a controlled function under the approved persons regime. The criteria are also relevant in assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of persons who have already been approved.

12

General Provisions (GEN)

GEN contains rules and guidance on general matters, including interpreting the Handbook, statutory status disclosure, the appropriate regulator's12 logo and insurance against financial penalties.

Fees manual (FEES)

This manual sets out the fees applying to credit unions.

Conduct of Business sourcebook (COBS)

A credit union which acts as a CTF provider or provides a cash-deposit ISA will need to be aware of the relevant requirements in COBS. COBS 4.6 (Past, simulated past and future performance), COBS 4.7.1 R (Direct offer financial promotions), COBS 4.10 (Systems and controls and approving and communicating financial promotions), COBS 13 (Preparing product information) and COBS 14 (Providing product information to clients) apply with respect to accepting deposits as set out in those provisions, COBS 4.1 and BCOBS.

Banking: Conduct of Business sourcebook (BCOBS)

BCOBS sets out rules and guidance for credit unions on how they should conduct their business with their customers. In particular there are rules and guidance relating to communications with banking customers and financial promotions (BCOBS 2), distance communications (BCOBS 3), information to be communicated to banking customers (BCOBS 4), post sale requirements (BCOBS 5), and cancellation (BCOBS 6). BCOBS 5.1.13 R (Value dating) does not apply to credit unions. The rules in BCOBS 3.1 that relate to distance contracts for accepting deposits are likely to have limited application to a credit union. This is because the Distance Marketing Directive only applies where there is "an organised distance sales or service-provision scheme run by the supplier" (Article 2(a)). If, therefore, the credit union normally operates face to face and has not set up facilities to enable customers to deal with it at a distance, such as facilities for a customer to deal with it purely by post, telephone, fax or the Internet, the provisions will not be relevant.

Supervision manual (SUP)

The following provisions of SUP are relevant to credit unions: 13SUP 1A13 (The appropriate regulator's12 approach to supervision), SUP 2 (Information gathering by the appropriate regulator12 on its own initiative), SUP 3.1 to SUP 3.8 (Auditors), SUP 5 (Skilled persons), SUP 6 (Applications to vary or cancel Part 4A12permission), SUP 7 (Individual requirements), SUP 8 (Waiver and modification of rules), SUP 9 (Individual guidance), 13SUP 10A and SUP 10B13 (Approved persons), SUP 11 (Controllers and Close links), SUP 15 (Notifications to the appropriate regulator12) and SUP 16 (Reporting Requirements).

Credit unions are reminded that they are subject to the requirements of the Act and SUP 11 on

controllers and close links, and are bound to notify the appropriate regulator12 of changes. It may be unlikely, in practice, that credit unions will develop such relationships. It is possible, however, that a person may acquire control of a credit union within the meaning of the Act by reason of holding the prescribed proportion of deferred shares in the credit union.

In relation to SUP 16, credit unions are exempted from the requirement to submit annual reports of

controllers and close links.

1212121212

Decision, Procedure and Penalties manual (DEPP)

DEPP is relevant to credit unions because it sets out:

(1) the FCA's12 decision-making procedure for giving statutory notices. These are warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5); and

(2) the FCA's12 policy with respect to the imposition and amount of penalties under the Act (see DEPP 6).

1212

Dispute Resolution: Complaints (DISP)

DISP sets out rules and guidance in relation to treating complainants fairly and the Financial Ombudsman Service.

Compensation (COMP)

COMP sets out rules relating to the scheme for compensating consumers when authorised firms are unable, or likely to be unable, to satisfy claims against them.12

The Enforcement Guide (EG)

The Enforcement Guide (EG) describes the FCA's12 approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Act and by other legislation.2

12

Financial crime: a guide for firms (FC)

FC provides guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime.
SYSC 3.2.15GRP
Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to form an audit committee. An audit committee could typically examine management's process for ensuring the appropriateness and effectiveness of systems and controls, examine the arrangements made by management to ensure compliance with requirements and standards under the regulatory system, oversee the functioning of the internal audit function (if applicable - see SYSC 3.2.16 G9)
TC App 6.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1

1

2.

Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.

3.

[deleted]1

1

Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies

4.

In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:

(1)

the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and

(2)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

5.

An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.

6.

When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:

(1)

carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;

(2)

ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;

(3)

take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and

(4)

request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.

7.

The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.

8.

The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

9.

Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.

Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession

10.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.

Carrying out effective verification services

11.

If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.

12.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:

(1)

verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1

(2)

verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and

(3)

verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.

13.

The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.

14.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will withdraw its statement of professional standing if the accredited body is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER.

In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.

Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness

15.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.

16.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.

17.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER.

Ongoing cooperation with the FCA

18.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.

19.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.

20.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

Withdrawal of accreditation

21.

If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.
DTR 4.1.7RRP
(1) If an issuer is required to prepare consolidated accounts, the financial statements must be audited in accordance with Article 37 of the Seventh Council Directive 83/349/EEC.(2) If an issuer is not required to prepare consolidated accounts the financial statements must be audited in accordance with Articles 51 and 51a of the Fourth Council Directive 78/660/EEC.(3) The audit report, signed by the person or persons responsible for auditing the financial statements must be disclosed
MAR 8.3.15GRP
To meet the financial resources requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2), the FCA expects a benchmark administrator to hold both sufficient liquid financial assets and net capital to be able to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark.11(1) net capital 1 can include common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves, other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one capital or additional tier one capital and may include interim earnings that have
CONC 12.1.4RRP

Table: Disapplied or modified modules or provisions of the Handbook

Module

Disapplication or modification

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Control sourcebook (SYSC)

[FCA]

SYSC 6.1.4C R (requirement of debt management firm or credit repair firm to appoint a compliance officer) does not apply to a firm with an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.8 R (responsibility for anti-money laundering systems and controls) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.9 R (requirement to appoint a money laundering reporting officer) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

Fees manual (FEES)

[FCA]

The Fees manual does not apply in respect of the fee provided for in FEES 8.1.1R (1), except for the rules and guidance in FEES 2.3 and FEES 8.1.

3Threshold Conditions (COND)

Guidance applies with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 1).

Note 1

A firm is treated as having an interim permission on and after 1 April 2014 to carry on credit-related regulated activity4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 if it met the conditions set out in Chapter 4 of Part 8 of that Order. Section 55B(3) of the Act (satisfaction of threshold conditions) does not require the FCA or PRA to ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible. The FCA or PRA can, however, exercise its power under section 55J of the Act (variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or under section 55L of the Act (in the case of the FCA) or section 55M of the Act (in the case of the PRA) (imposition of requirements by the regulator) in relation to a firm if, among other things, it appears to the FCA or PRA that the firm is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to the credit-related regulated activities4 or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which it has an interim permission for which the regulator is responsible. The guidance4 in COND should be read accordingly.

4444

3Client Assets (CASS)

CASS does not apply with respect to credit-related regulated activity to a firm with7:

(1)

only an interim permission; or

(2) an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission;

if the firm acts in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 3.42 and 3.43 of the Debt management (and credit repair services) guidance (OFT366rev) previously issued by the Office of Fair Trading, as they were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014.

77577

3Supervision manual (SUP)

SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 10A (FCA Approved persons) and SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) (see Note 2) do not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to a credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission,7

except that SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 apply to a firm in relation to its designated investment business that comprises operating an electronic system in relation to lending.7

7

Note 2

A firm may not be a principal in relation to a regulated activity for which it has interim permission. A firm with interim permission may, however, be an appointed representative in relation to a regulated activity which it does not have interim permission to carry on (article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements) applies:

(1) with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 3);

(2) with the modifications to SUP 6.3.15D9 and SUP 6.4.5D9 set out in paragraph 1.2 of this Schedule.

Note 3

If a firm with interim permission applies to the appropriate regulator under section 55A of the Act for Part 4A permission to carry on a regulated activity or under section 55H or 55I of the Act to vary a Part 4A permission that the firm has otherwise than by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 by adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates, the application may be treated by the appropriate regulator as relating also to some or all of the regulated activities for which the firm has interim permission.

SUP 11 (Controllers and close links) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission (see Note 4).

Note 4

A firm is not to be regarded as an authorised person for the purposes of Part 12 of the Act (control over authorised person) if it has only an interim permission (see article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

For a firm with only an interim permission

(1) SUP 15.5.1 R, SUP 15.5.2 G, SUP 15.5.4 R, SUP 15.5.5 R are modified so that the words "reasonable advance", "and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name" and "and the date of the change" are omitted; and

(2) SUP 15.7.1 R, SUP 15.7.4 R and SUP 15.7.5A R are modified so that a notification of a change in name, address or telephone number must be made using the online Consumer Credit Interim Permissions system available on the FCA's website.

(3) If in a notification to the FCA the firm is required to enter its FRN number it must include it interim permission number.

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission except:7

(1) for SUP 16.14; and7

(2) 7in relation to data item CCR008.6

SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made, except in so far as those changes relate to data item CCR008.6

3Disputes Resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP)

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) do not apply to a person with only an interim permission.

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 as if the changes to DISP 1.10 and DISP 1.10A effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.

3Consumer Credit sourcebook (CONC)

CONC 10 (Prudential requirements for debt management firms) does not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to credit-related regulated activity or operating an electronic system in relation to lending5 for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission.

3Perimeter Guidance manual (PERG)

For a firm only with an interim permission, PERG 5.11.13 G is modified so that following the words "which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities" is added "(other than a regulated activity carried on by a firm only with an interim permission listed in article 59A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)(Amendment)(No.2) Order 2013 (SI 2013/1881) which is to be disregarded for this purpose)".

Article 59A enables a firm with only an interim permission which would be able to benefit from article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order, but for carrying on the new consumer credit regulated activities to continue to do so.
SYSC 8.1.8RRP
A common platform firm must in particular take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required by law to perform the outsourced functions, services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry out the outsourced services effectively, and to this end the firm must establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the service provider;(3)
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
DTR 7.1.3RRP
An issuer must ensure that, as a minimum, the relevant body must:(1) monitor the financial reporting process;(2) monitor the effectiveness of the issuer’s internal control, internal audit where applicable, and risk management systems;(3) monitor the statutory audit of the annual and consolidated accounts;(4) review and monitor the independence of the statutory auditor, and in particular the provision of additional services to the issuer.
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R15) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this inSUP 10A.115 (Approved persons - Application).

15155

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the appropriate regulator would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

66

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

663

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code7 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of independent,10 non-executive directors to be responsible responsible (among other things) for overseeing the effectiveness10 of the audit process and the objectivity and independence of the external auditor.10 That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

7

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4
LR App 2.1.2GRP

29.8

Annual financial report

9.81

R

[not used]

9.8.2

R

[not used]

9.8.3

R

[not used]

Information to be included in annual report and accounts

9.8.4

R

In addition to the requirements set out in DTR 4.1 a listed company must include in its annual financial report, where applicable, the following:

(1)

a statement of the amount of interest capitalised by the group during the period under review with an indication of the amount and treatment of any related tax relief;

(2)

any information required by LR 9.2.18 R (Publication of unaudited financial information);

(3)

details of any small related party transaction as required by LR 11.1.10 R (2)(c);

(4)

details of any long-term incentive schemes as required by LR 9.4.3 R;

(5)

details of any arrangements under which a director of the company has waived or agreed to waive any emoluments from the company or any subsidiary undertaking;

(6)

where a director has agreed to waive future emoluments, details of such waiver together with those relating to emoluments which were waived during the period under review;

(7)

in the case of any allotment for cash of equity securities made during the period under review otherwise than to the holders of the company'sequity shares in proportion to their holdings of such equity shares and which has not been specifically authorised by the company's shareholders:

(a)

the classes of shares allotted and for each class of shares, the number allotted, their aggregate nominal value and the consideration received by the company for the allotment;

(b)

the names of the allottees, if less than six in number, and in the case of six or more allottees a brief generic description of each new class of equity holder (e.g. holder of loan stock);

(c)

the market price of the allotted securities on the date on which the terms of the issue were fixed; and

(d)

the date on which the terms of the issue were fixed;

(8)

the information required by paragraph (7) must be given for any unlisted major subsidiary undertaking of the company;

(9)

where a listed company has listed shares in issue and is a subsidiary undertaking of another company, details of the participation by the parent undertaking in any placing made during the period under review;

(10)

details of any contract of significance subsisting during the period under review:

(a)

to which the listed company, or one of its subsidiary undertakings, is a party and in which a director of the listed company is or was materially interested; and

(b)

between the listed company, or one of its subsidiary undertakings, and a controlling shareholder;

(11)

details of any contract for the provision of services to the listed company or any of its subsidiary undertakings by a controlling shareholder, subsisting during the period under review, unless:

(a)

it is a contract for the provision of services which it is the principal business of the shareholder to provide; and

(b)

it is not a contract of significance;

(12)

details of any arrangement under which a shareholder has waived or agreed to waive any dividends; and

(13)

where a shareholder has agreed to waive future dividends, details of such waiver together with those relating to dividends which are payable during the period under review.

9.8.5

G

A listed company need not include with the annual report and accounts details of waivers of dividends of less than 1% of the total value of any dividend provided that some payment has been made on each share of the relevant class during the relevant calendar year.

Additional information

9.8.6

R

In the case of a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom, the following additional items must be included in its annual financial report:

(1)

a statement setting out all the interests (in respect of which transactions are notifiable to the company under DTR 3.1.2 R) of each person who is a director of the listed company as at the end of the period under review including:

(a)

all changes in the interests of each director that have occurred between the end of the period under review and a date not more than one month prior to the date of the notice of the annual general meeting; or

(b)

if there have been no changes in the period described in paragraph (a), a statement that there have been no changes in the interests of each director;

Interests of each director include the interests of connected persons of which the listed company is, or ought upon reasonable enquiry to become, aware.

(2)

a statement showing the interests disclosed to the listed company in accordance with DTR 5 as at the end of the period under review and:

(a)

all interests disclosed to the listed company in accordance with DTR 5 that have occurred between the end of the period under review and a date not more than one month prior to the date of the notice of the annual general meeting; or

(b)

if no interests have been disclosed to the listed company in accordance with DTR 5 in the period described in (a), a statement that no changes have been disclosed to the listed company;

(3)

a statement made by the directors that the business is a going concern, together with supporting assumptions or qualifications as necessary, that has been prepared in accordance with Going Concern and Liquidity Risk: Guidance for Directors of UK Companies 2009, published by the Financial Reporting Council in October 2009;

(4)

a statement setting out:

(a)

details of any shareholders' authority for the purchase, by the listed company of its own shares that is still valid at the end of the period under review;

(b)

in the case of purchases made otherwise than through the market or by tender to all shareholders, the names of sellers of such shares purchased, or proposed to be purchased, by the listed company during the period under review;

(c)

in the case of any purchases made otherwise than through the market or by tender or partial offer to all shareholders, or options or contracts to make such purchases, entered into since the end of the period covered by the report, information equivalent to that required under Part 2 of Schedule 7 to the Large & Medium Sized Companies and Groups (Accounts and Reports) Regulations 2008 (SI 2008/410) (Disclosure required by company acquiring its own shares etc) ; and

(d)

in the case of sales of treasury shares for cash made otherwise than through the market, or in connection with an employees' share scheme, or otherwise than pursuant to an opportunity which (so far as was practicable) was made available to all holders of the listed company'ssecurities (or to all holders of a relevant class of its securities) on the same terms, particulars of the names of purchasers of such shares sold, or proposed to be sold, by the company during the period under review;

(5)

a statement of how the listed company has applied the Main Principles set out in the UK Corporate Governance Code, in a manner that would enable shareholders to evaluate how the principles have been applied;

(6)

a statement as to whether the listed company has:

(a)

complied throughout the accounting period with all relevant provisions set out in the UK Corporate Governance Code; or

(b)

not complied throughout the accounting period with all relevant provisions set out in the UK Corporate Governance Code and if so, setting out:

(i)

those provisions, if any it has not complied with;

(ii)

in the case of provisions whose requirements are of a continuing nature, the period within which, if any, it did not comply with some or all of those provisions; and

(iii)

the company's reasons for non-compliance; and

(7)

a report to the shareholders by the Board which contains all the matters set out in LR 9.8.8 R.

9.8.6A

G

(1)

The effect of LR 9.8.6 R (1) is that a listed company is required to set out a 'snapshot' of the total interests of a director and his or her connected persons, as at the end of the period under review (including certain information to update it as at a date not more than a month before the date of the notice of the annual general meeting). The interests that need to be set out are limited to those in respect of which transactions fall to be notified under the notification requirement for PDMRs in DTR 3.1.2 R. Persons who are directors during, but not at the end of, the period under review need not be included.

(2)

A listed company unable to compile the statement in LR 9.8.6 R (1) from information already available to it may need to seek the relevant information, or confirmation, from the director himself, including that in relation to connected persons, but would not be expected to obtain information directly from connected persons.

9.8.7

R

An overseas company with a premium listing must include in its annual report and accounts the information in LR 9.8.6 R (5), LR 9.8.6 R (6) and LR 9.8.8 R (9).

9.8.7A

R

(1)

An overseas company with a premium listing that is not required to comply with requirements imposed by another EEA State that correspond to DTR 7.2 (Corporate governance statements) must comply with DTR 7.2 as if it were an issuer to which that section applies.

(2)

An overseas company with a premium listing which complies with LR 9.8.7 R will be taken to satisfy the requirements of DTR 7.2.2 R and DTR 7.2.3 R, but (unless it is required to comply with requirements imposed by another EEA State that correspond to DTR 7.2) must comply with all of the other requirements of DTR 7.2 as if it were an issuer to which that section applies.

Report to shareholders

9.8.8

R

The report to the shareholders by the Board required by LR 9.8.6 R (7) must contain the following:

(1)

a statement of the listed company's policy on executive directors' remuneration;

(2)

information presented in tabular form, unless inappropriate, together with explanatory notes as necessary on:

(a)

the amount of each element in the remuneration package for the period under review of each director, by name, including but not restricted to, basic salary and fees, the estimated money value of benefits in kind, annual bonuses, deferred bonuses, compensation for loss of office and payments for breach of contract or other termination payments;

(b)

the total remuneration for each director for the period under review and for the corresponding prior period;

(c)

any significant payments made to former directors during the period under review; and

(d)

any share options, including Save-as-you-earn options, for each director, by name, in accordance with the requirements of the Directors' Remuneration Report Regulations;

(3)

details of any long-term incentive schemes, other than share options as required by paragraph (2)(d), including the interests of each director, by name, in the long-term incentive schemes at the start of the period under review;

(4)

details of any entitlements or awards granted and commitments made to each director under any long-term incentive schemes during the period, showing which crystallize either in the same year or in subsequent years;

(5)

details of the monetary value and number of shares, cash payments or other benefits received by each director under any long-term incentive schemes during the period;

(6)

details of the interests of each director in the long-term incentive schemes at the end of the period;

(7)

an explanation and justification of any element of a director's remuneration, other than basic salary, which is pensionable;

(8)

details of any director's service contract with a notice period in excess of one year or with provisions for pre-determined compensation on termination which exceeds one year's salary and benefits in kind, giving the reasons for such notice period;

(9)

details of the unexpired term of any directors' service contract of a director proposed for election or re-election at the forthcoming annual general meeting, and, if any director proposed for election or re-election does not have a directors' service contract, a statement to that effect;

(10)

a statement of the listed company's policy on the granting of options or awards under its employee share scheme and other long-term incentive schemes, explaining and justifying any departure from that policy in the period under review and any change in the policy from the preceding year;

(11)

for money purchase schemes details of the contribution or allowance payable or made by the listed company in respect of each director during the period under review; and

(12)

for defined benefit schemes

a)

details of the amount of the increase during the period under review (excluding inflation) and of the accumulated total amount at the end of the period in respect of the accrued benefit to which each director would be entitled on leaving service or is entitled having left service during the period under review;

(b)

either:

(i)

the transfer value (less director's contributions) of the relevant increase in accrued benefit (to be calculated in accordance with regulations 7 to 7E of the Occupational Pension Schemes (Transfer Values) Regulations 1996 but making no deduction for any under-funding) as at the end of the period; or

(ii)

so much of the following information as is necessary to make a reasonable assessment of the transfer value in respect of each director:

(A) age;

(B) normal retirement age;

(C) the amount of any contributions paid or payable by the director under the terms of the scheme during the period under review;

(D) details of spouses and dependants benefits;

(E) early retirement rights and options;

(F) expectations of pension increases after retirement (whether guaranteed or discretionary); and

(G) discretionary benefits for which allowance is made in transfer values on leaving and any other relevant information which will significantly affect the value of the benefits; and

(c)

no disclosure of voluntary contributions and benefits.

Information required by law

9.8.9

G

The requirements of LR 9.8.6 R (6) and LR 9.8.8 R relating to corporate governance are additional to the information required by law to be included in the listed company's annual report and accounts.

Auditors report

9.8.10

R

A listed company must ensure that the auditors review each of the following before the annual report is published:

(1)

LR 9.8.6R(3) (statement by the directors that the business is a going concern); and

(2)

the parts of the statement required byLR 9.8.6 R (6) (corporate governance) that relate to the following provisions of the UK Corporate Governance Code:

(a)

C.1.1;

(b)

C.2.1; and

(c)

C.3.1 to C.3.7.

9.8.11

R

A listed company must ensure that the auditors review the following disclosures:

(1)

LR 9.8.8 R (2) (amount of each element in the remuneration package and information on share options);

(2)

LR 9.8.8 R (3), LR 9.8.8 R (4) and (5) (details of long term incentive schemes for directors);

(3)

LR 9.8.8 R (11) (money purchase schemes); and

(4)

LR 9.8.8 R (12) (defined benefit schemes).

9.8.12

R

If, in the opinion of the auditors the listed company has not complied with any of the requirements set out in LR 9.8.11 R the listed company must ensure that the auditors' report includes, to the extent possible, a statement giving details of the non-compliance.

Summary financial statements

9.8.13

R

Any summary financial statement issued by a listed company as permitted under the Companies Act 2006, must disclose:

(1)

earnings per share; and

(2)

the information required for summary financial statements set out in or under the Companies Act 2006.

SYSC 4.1.11GRP
Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to form an audit committee. An audit committee could typically examine management's process for ensuring the appropriateness and effectiveness of systems and controls, examine the arrangements made by management to ensure compliance with requirements and standards under the regulatory system, oversee the functioning of the internal audit function (if applicable) and provide an interface
SUP 4.5.7GRP
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator.7Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that
SYSC 5.1.11GRP
Where a common platform firm outsources its internal audit function, it should take reasonable steps to ensure that every individual involved in the performance of this service is independent from the individuals who perform its external audit. This should not prevent services from being undertaken by a firm's external auditors provided that:(1) the work is carried out under the supervision and management of the firm's own internal staff; and(2) potential conflicts of interest
CASS 8.3.2ARRP
(1) 1A firm's up-to-date list of mandates under CASS 8.3.2 R (1) must be maintained in a medium that allows the storage of information in a way accessible for future reference by the FCA or by an auditor preparing a report under SUP 3.10.4 R.(2) It must be possible for any corrections or other amendments, and the contents of the list prior to such corrections and amendments, to be easily ascertained.
COLL 11.2.2RRP
(1) An application for approval of an investment in a master UCITS under section 283A of the Act must be accompanied by the following documents:(a) the instrument constituting the fund1 of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;1(b) the prospectus and the key investor information referred to in COLL 4.7.2 R (Key investor information) of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;(c) the master-feeder agreement or the internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R