Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
81 - 100 of 321 items.
For the agreements referred to in CONC 4.3.2 R, a firm should consider whether it is necessary or appropriate to provide explanations of the matters in CONC 4.5.3R (2), in particular, a firm should consider highlighting key risks to the borrower including the consequences of missing payments or under-paying, including, where applicable, the risk of repossession of the borrower's property.[Note: section 55A(6) of CCA and paragraph 3.1 of ILG][Note: Until the end of 30 September
(1) Before a P2P agreement is made, the firm must:(a) provide the prospective borrower with an adequate explanation of the matters referred to in (2) in order to place the borrower in a position to assess whether the agreement is adapted to the borrower's needs and financial situation;(b) where the P2P agreement is not a non-commercial agreement, advise the prospective borrower:(i) to consider the information which is required to be disclosed under section 55(1) of the CCA; and(ii)
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
The notice required by CONC 7.19.4 R must contain:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it relates to default sums and is given in compliance with FCArules;(2) the date of the notice;(3) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(4) the firm's name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate, any other address;(5) the amount and nature of each default sum payable under the agreement which has not been the subject of a previous notice of default sums;(6)
An issuer of securities other than shares admitted to trading on a regulated market must disclose to the public without delay any changes in the rights of holders of securities other than shares, including changes in the terms and conditions of such securities which could indirectly affect those rights, resulting in particular from a change in loan terms or in interest rates.[Note article 16(2) of the TD]
(1) If it appears to the FCA that there is, or there may be, a breach of the listing rules or the disclosure rules and transparency rules4 by an issuer with a premium listing4, the FCA may in writing require the issuer to appoint a sponsor to advise the issuer on the application of the listing rules, the disclosure rules and the transparency rules4.4(2) If required to do so under (1), an issuer must, as soon as practicable, appoint a sponsor to advise it on the application of
5Where a listing rule requires an issuer who is not subject to DTR 6.3.1 R to use the services of an RIS, the issuer must comply with the provisions of DTR 6.3, except in relation to information which is required to be disclosed under the Transparency Directive, Article 6 of the Market Abuse Directive or the DTR.
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted, as at or in the year to 31 December of the previous year as appropriate, in relation to the tariff base for each of the relevant industry
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in part 4A of the Employment Rights Act 19963;3(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in the public interest3, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:3(a) a criminal offence;
Where a firm takes on responsibility for giving information to a customer or receiving information from a customer in accordance with provisions of the CCA (for example, supplying a copy of an executed regulated credit agreement under section 61A of the CCA) the firm should ensure it is familiar with the relevant statutory requirements and has adequate system and procedures in place to comply with the provision in question.
3If a customer has not entered into an agreement referred to in section 155(2) of the CCA within six months of the customer being introduced by the firm to a potential source of credit, as soon as reasonably practicable after the expiry of that six-month period a firm must by any method clearly bring to the customer's attention:(1) the right to request a refund under section 155 of the CCA; and (2) how to exercise the right to request the refund.[Note: paragraph 6.19d of CBG]
1The guidance on initial disclosure requirements in MCOB 4.4A3 may be relevant; in this context, that guidance should be read using home purchase plan terminology instead of the equivalent regulated mortgage contract terminology, where appropriate3.Additional requirements for distance home purchase mediation contracts with retail customersNote: The rules regarding additional disclosure requirements for, and cancellation of, distance home purchase mediation contracts are set out
3For the purposes of MCOB 4.10.5A R:(1) a home purchase plan will not be suitable for a customer unless the home purchase plan is appropriate to the needs and circumstances of the customer;(2) a firm must base its determination of whether a home purchase plan is appropriate to a customer's needs and circumstances on the facts disclosed by the customer and other relevant facts about the customer of which the firm is or should reasonably be aware;(3) no advice must be given to a
If, notwithstanding the steps taken by a firm to comply with MCOB 1.6.3 R, it transpires that a mortgage which the firm has treated as unregulated or as a regulated credit agreement4 is in fact a regulated mortgage contract, the firm must as soon as practicable after the correct status of the mortgage has been established:(1) contact the customer and provide him with the following information in a durable medium:(a) a statement that the mortgage contract is a regulated mortgage
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FCA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FCA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
Principles 6 (Customers' interests), 7 (Communications with clients), 8 (Conflicts of interest), 9 (Customers: relationships of trust) and 10 (Clients' assets) impose requirements on firms expressly in relation to their clients or customers. These requirements depend, in part, on the characteristics of the client or customer concerned. This is because what is "due regard" (in Principles 6 and 7), "fairly" (in Principles 6 and 8), "clear, fair and not misleading" (in Principle
If the person with or for whom the firm is carrying on an activity is acting through an agent, the ability of the firm to treat the agent as its client under COBS 2.4.3 R3 (Agent as client) will not be available. For example, if a general insurer is effecting a general insurance contract through a general insurance broker who is acting as agent for a disclosed policyholder, the policyholder will be a client of the firm and the firm must comply with the Principles accordingly.
(1) The firm may require the consumer to pay for any loss under a contract caused by market movements that the firm would reasonably incur in cancelling it. The period for calculating the loss shall end on the day on which the firm receives the notification of cancellation.(2) This rule:(a) does not apply for a distance contract or for a contract established on a regular or recurring premium or payment basis; and(b) only applies if the firm has complied with its obligations to
(1) A firm must,
in good time before a retail client is
bound by any agreement relating to designated
investment business or ancillary
services or before the provision of those services, whichever
is the earlier, provide that client with:(a) the terms of any such agreement;
and(b) the information about the firm and its services relating to that agreement
or to those services required by COBS 6.1.4 R, including information on communications, conflicts
of interest and authorised
When considering its approach to
client agreements, a firm should
be aware of other obligations in the Handbook which
may be relevant. These include the fair,
clear and not misleading rule and the rules on
disclosure of information to a client before
providing services and the rules on
distance communications (principally in COBS 2.2, 5, 6 and 13).
A credit broker must disclose to a customer in good time before a credit agreement or a consumer hire agreement is entered into, the existence of any commission or fee or other remuneration payable to the credit broker by the lender or owner or a third party in relation to a credit agreement or a consumer hire agreement, where knowledge of the existence or amount of the commission could actually or potentially:(1) affect the impartiality of the credit broker in recommending a
At the request of the customer, a credit broker must disclose to the customer, in good time before a regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement is entered into, the amount (or if the precise amount is not known, the likely amount) of any commission or fee or other remuneration payable to the credit broker by the lender or owner or a third party.[Note: paragraph 3.7i (box) of CBG]
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:6(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the appropriate regulator6 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;6(4) objectivity: whether
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:6(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit bystaff of the appropriate regulator6or a request for information on an informal basis); 6(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:
Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking |
First reporting reference date |
Ongoing reporting reference date |
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm |
30 June 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
30 June 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
|
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm) |
31 December 2015 |
Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
31 December 2015 |
Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
[Note:articles 4(1)(b), 11(1) and 13(1) of RRD]
Listing Principle 13 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules, disclosure rules, transparency rules and corporate governance rules.3 In particular, the FCA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to, where applicable:333(1) identifying whether any obligations
Timely and accurate disclosure of information to the market is a key obligation of listed companies. For the purposes of Listing Principle 13, a listed company should have adequate systems and controls to be able to:3313(1) ensure that it can properly identify information which requires disclosure under the listing rules, disclosure rules, transparency rules or corporate governance rules3 in a timely manner; and3(2) ensure that any information identified under (1) is properly
If a firm provides elements of status disclosure information orally as part of an interactive dialogue, it should do so for all elements of the information. In the case of telephone selling, the information may be given in accordance with the distance marketing disclosure rules (see ICOBS 3.1.14 R).
(1) Prior to the conclusion of an initial contract and, if necessary, on its amendment or renewal, an insurer must disclose to the customer at least:(a) the statutory status disclosure statement (see GEN 4);(b) whose policies it offers; and(c) whether it is providing a personal recommendation or information.(2) If this is done orally, the disclosure must be provided in writing or any other durable medium no later than immediately after the conclusion of the contract.
(1) This section deals with matters relating to the register of unitholders of units in an AUT or ACS1 including its establishment and contents. The authorised fund manager or depositary1 may be responsible for the register. In any event, the person responsible for the register must be stated in the trust deed or contractual scheme deed1 and this section details what his duties are. The provisions relating to documentsevidencingtitle to units, including the issue of bearer certificates
(1) Either:11(a) the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed); or1(b) the authorised contractual scheme manager or the depositary of the ACS (as nominated in the contractual scheme deed);1must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.1(2) The manager or trustee or the authorised fund manager or depositary1 in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps