Related provisions for SUP 16.18.10

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ICOBS 6.3.1RRP
  1. (1)

    Before a pure protection contract is concluded, a firm must inform a customer of the information in the table below.

  2. (2)

    The information must be communicated in a clear and accurate manner, in writing, and in an official language of the State of the commitment or in another language agreed by the parties.

    3. Information to be communicated before conclusion

    (1)

    The name of the insurance undertaking and its legal form.

    (2)

    The name of the EEA State in which the head office and, where appropriate, the agency or branch concluding the contract is situated.

    (3)

    The address of the head office and, where appropriate, of the agency or branch concluding the contract.

    (4)*

    Definition of each benefit and each option.

    (5)*

    Term of the contract.

    (6)*

    Means of terminating the contract.

    (7)*

    Means of payment of premiums and duration of payments.

    (8)*

    Information on the premiums for each benefit, both main benefits and supplementary benefits, where appropriate.

    (9)

    Arrangements for application of the cancellation period.

    (10)

    General information on the tax arrangements applicable to the type of policy.

    (11)

    The arrangements for handling complaints concerning contracts by policyholders, lives assured or beneficiaries under contracts including, where appropriate, the existence of a complaints body (usually the Financial Ombudsman Service), without prejudice to the right to take legal proceedings.

    (12)

    The law applicable to the contract where the parties do not have a free choice or, where the parties are free to choose the law applicable, the law the insurance undertaking proposes to choose.

    Note: The rule on mid-term changes applies to items marked with an asterisk (see ICOBS 6.3.3 R).

[Note: Annex III(A) to the Consolidated Life Directive]

BIPRU 12.3.7GRP
As well as the rules in BIPRU 12.3 requiring a firm to have robust systems to enable it to identify, measure, manage and monitor liquidity risk, an ILAS BIPRU firm is also subject to obligations in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) requiring it to report quantitative data about its liquidity position to the appropriate regulator. That chapter of SUP sets out the applicable data items and the rules governing the frequency of their submission to the appropriate regulator. Absent a
ICOBS 8.4.9ARRP
2The requirement referred to in ICOBS 8.4.9R (7)(b) is that the report must include an opinion from the auditor confirming whether, in all material respects, the tracing office maintains a database which accurately and reliably stores information submitted to it by firms for the purpose of complying with relevant requirements in ICOBS 8.4 and that it has systems which can adequately keep it up to date in the light of new information provided by firms.
IFPRU 11.2.19RRP
A firm must send its recovery plan to the FCA in line with SUP 16.20 (Recovery plans and information for resolution plans).[Note: article 6(1) of RRD]
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
SYSC 10.1.21RRP
(1) 5Where the organisational or administrative arrangements made by a management company for the management of conflicts of interest are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of the UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme it manages or of its Unitholders will be prevented, the senior personnel or other competent internal body of the firm must be promptly informed in order for them to take any necessary decision to ensure that in
COLL 6.2.12GRP

Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).

Correction of box management errors

1

Controls by authorised fund managers

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over:

(1)

its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and

(2)

compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box.

2

Controls by depositaries

(1)

Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation).

(2)

A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures.

3

Recording and reporting of box management errors

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error.

(2)

A depositary should report material box management errors to the FCA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including:

  • the implications of the error for the sufficiency of controls put into place by the authorised fund manager;
  • the significance of any breakdown in the authorised fund manager's management controls or other checking procedures;
  • the significance of any failure of systems or back-up arrangements;
  • the duration of an error; and
  • the level of compensation due to the scheme, and an authorised fund manager's ability (or otherwise) to meet claims for compensation in full.

(3)

A depositary should also make a return to the FCA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis.
BIPRU 12.4.9RRP
A firm must ensure that the results of its stress tests are reported to the appropriate regulator in a timely manner.
SUP 15.9.5RRP
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the appropriate regulator with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description
SYSC 4.1.4AGRP
3A firm that is not a common platform firm or a management company10 should take into account the decision-making procedures and effective internal reporting rules (SYSC 4.1.4R (1),10(3) and (4))10 as if they were guidance (and as if "should" appeared in those rules instead of "must") as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.3 G5.
SUP 3.10.8BGRP
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
SUP 4.5.7GRP
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator.7Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that
SUP 2.1.4GRP
The FCA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FCA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FCA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations and the CRA. 7These are dealt with in
DISP 1.10A.3RRP
(1) Where the firm's relevant reporting period (as defined in DISP 1.10.4 R or DISP 1.10.4A R as the case may be27) ends between 1 January and 30 June, the firm must publish the complaints data summary no later than 31 August of the same year.(2) Where the firm's relevant reporting period (as defined in DISP 1.10.4 R or DISP 1.10.4A R as the case may be27) ends between 1 July and 31 December, the firm must publish the complaints data summary no later than 28 February of the following
INSPRU 8.2.28RRP
The information provided to the appropriate regulator by the Society under INSPRU 8.2.25 R must include:(1) a statement of the purpose of any proposed amendment or new Lloyd's trust deed and the expected impact, if any, on policyholders, managing agents, members, and potential members; and(2) a description of the consultation undertaken under INSPRU 8.2.26 R including a summary of any significant responses to that consultation.
LR 13.4.7GRP
The FCA may modify the information requirements in LR 13.4.6 R if it considers that the information set out would not provide significant additional information. In those circumstances the FCA would generally require only the following information, provided it is presented in accordance with reporting standards acceptable to the FCA:33(1) details of mineral resources, and where applicable reserves (presented separately) and exploration results or prospects;3(2) anticipated mine