Related provisions for PR 5.5.8

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COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
COLL 6.9.8BGRP
(1) 8ESMA has issued guidelines on the use of the term ‘UCITS ETF’. A ‘UCITS ETF’ is a UCITS with at least one unit or share class which is traded throughout the day, on at least one regulated market or multilateral trading facility, with at least one market maker that takes action to ensure that the stock exchange value of its units or shares does not significantly vary from its net asset value and, where applicable, its indicative net asset value.(2) A ‘UCITS ETF’ should use
COLL 6.12.4GRP
(1) The risk management process in COLL 6.12.3 R should take account of the investment objectives and policy of the scheme as stated in the most recent prospectus.(2) The depositary of a UCITS scheme should take reasonable care to review the appropriateness of the risk management process in line with its duties under COLL 6.6.4 R (General duties of the depositary) and COLL 6.6.14 R (Duties of the depositary and authorised fund manager: investment and borrowing powers), as appropriate.
COLL 6.12.12RRP
An authorised fund manager or a UKUCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that, for each UCITS it manages, the liquidity profile of the investments of the scheme is appropriate to the redemption policy laid down in the instrument constituting the fund2 or the prospectus.2[Note: article 40(4) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 7.3.1GRP
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund may be carried out4 under this section, instead of by the
COLL 7.3.4RRP
(1) An ICVC must not be wound up except:44(a) under this section; or4(b) as an unregistered company under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986.4(1A) 4A sub-fund must not:(a) be terminated except under this section; or(b) wound up except under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986 (as modified by regulation 33C of the OEIC Regulations) as an unregistered company.(2) An ICVC must not be wound up or a sub-fund terminated4 under this section if there is a vacancy in the position of ACD.
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
COLL 7.4.3RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in (2) and not otherwise:1(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund;1(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel1units, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4.4 R (1) or (2);11(c) the manager must cease to sell and redeem units; (d) the manager
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
COLL 7.4A.1GRP
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
COLL 7.4A.4RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
COLL 12.3.7GRP
An EEA UCITS management company that operates a UCITS scheme is advised that in particular it needs to comply with:(1) COLL 6.6.3 R (Functions of the authorised fund manager) requiring it to fulfil the obligations placed on it by the instrument constituting the fund2 and the prospectus of that scheme;2(2) Dispute resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP - see DISP 1 Annex 2 G for a summary of the relevant requirements that apply, which include the complaints handling rules (under
PERG 8.4.5GRP
An invitation is something which directly invites a person to take a step which will result in his engaging in investment activity. It follows that the invitation must cause the engaging in investment activity. Examples of an invitation include:(1) direct offer financial promotions;(2) a prospectus with application forms; and(3) Internet promotions by brokers where the response by the recipient will initiate the activity (such as ‘register with us now and begin dealing online’).A
PERG 8.4.21GRP
These will be advertisements that contain encouragement to contact the advertiser. They are likely to be inducements to do business with him or to get more information from him. If so, they will be inducements to engage in investment activity if they seek to persuade or incite persons to buy or sell investments or to get investment services. See PERG 8.4.7 G for more guidance on preliminary communications and whether they are a significant step in the chain of events which are
PERG 8.37.15GRP
(1) The prospectus directive has not been amended by AIFMD and closed-ended AIFs that are making an offer of securities to the public as defined in the prospectus directive need to comply with the requirements under both Directives.(2) However, where the AIF is required to publish a prospectus under section 85 of the Act or the equivalent provision implementing article 3 of the Prospectus Directive in the AIF'sHome State, only information referred to in FUND 3.2.2 R and FUND 3.2.3
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules or by the competent authority of another EEA State (provided the requirements of section 87H of the Act are met) – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus2; or2112(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by
LR 13.6.1RRP
A related party circular must also include:(1) in all cases the following information referred to in the PD Regulation relating to the company:Paragraph of Annex 1 of the PD Regulation;(a) Annex 1 item 5.1.1 – Issuer name;(b) Annex 1 item 5.1.4 – Issuer address;(c) Annex 1 item 18.1 – Major shareholders;(d) Annex 1 item 20.9 – Significant changes;(e) Annex 1 item 22 – Material contracts (if it is information which shareholders of the company would reasonably require to make a
COLL 8.6.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires,1 within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, temporarily1 suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is
COLL 4.4.12RRP
(1) Where this sourcebook requires any notice or document to be served upon a unitholder, it is duly served :(a) for units held by a registered unitholder, if it is:(i) sent by post to or left at1 the unitholder's address as appearing in the register; or1(ii) sent1 by using an electronic medium in accordance with COLL 4.4.13 R (Other notices); or1(b) for units represented by bearer certificates, if given in the manner provided for in the prospectus.(2) Any notice or document served
BIPRU 7.7.7RRP
The general eligibility criteria for using the methods in BIPRU 7.7.4R and BIPRU 7.7.9R - BIPRU 7.7.11R, for CIUs issued by companies supervised or incorporated within the EEA are that:(1) the CIU's prospectus or equivalent document must include:(a) the categories of assets the CIU is authorised to invest in;(b) if investment limits apply, the relative limits and the methodologies to calculate them;(c) if leverage is allowed, the maximum level of leverage; and(d) if investment
COBS 22.3.2RRP

1Each of the exemptions listed below applies only if the retail client is of the type described for the exemption and provided any additional conditions for the exemption are met.

Title

Type of retail client

Additional conditions

Certified high net worth investor

(a) An individual who meets the requirements set out in

COBS 4.12.6R; or

(b) an individual in an EEA State other than the UK who meets requirements which are broadly equivalent to those set out in COBS 4.12.6R; or

(c) a person (or persons) legally empowered to make investment decisions on behalf of an individual who meets the earnings or net asset requirements in (a) or (b) above

The firm must consider that the investment is likely to be suitable for that individual, based on a preliminary assessment of that individual’s profile and objectives (see COBS 4.12.5G(2)).

Certified sophisticated investor

(a) An individual who meets the requirements set out in

COBS 4.12.7R; or

(b) an individual in an EEA State other than the UK who meets requirements which are broadly equivalent to those set out in COBS 4.12.7R; or

(c) an individual who meets the requirements for either (a) or (b) above and who is legally empowered (solely or jointly with others) to make investment decisions on behalf of another person who is the firm's client.

Not applicable.

Self-certified sophisticated investor

(a) An individual who meets the requirements set out in

COBS 4.12.8R; or

(b) an individual in an EEA State other than the UK who meets requirements which are broadly equivalent to those set out in COBS 4.12.8R; or

(c) an individual who meets the requirements for either (a) or (b) above and who is legally empowered (solely or jointly with others) to make investment decisions on behalf of another person who is the firm's client.

The firm must consider that the investment is likely to be suitable for that individual, based on a preliminary assessment of that individual’s profile and objectives (see COBS 4.12.5G(2)).

Solicited advice

Any retail client.

The restrictions do not apply provided all of the following requirements are met:

(a) there is no invitation or inducement to participate in, acquire or underwrite the investment other than a personal recommendation on the investment;

(b) the personal recommendation is made following a specific request by that client for advice on the investment; and

(c) the client has not previously received any other communication (whether or not a financial promotion) from the firm or from a person connected to the firm which is intended to influence the client in relation to the investment.

(See Note 1)

MiFID or equivalent third country business other than financial promotions

Any retail client.

COBS 22.3.1R(2)(a) does not apply to MiFID or equivalent third country business (see COBS 9.3.5G).

Prospectus

Any retail client.

The restrictions do not apply to the distribution of a prospectus required under the Prospectus Directive.

Issuers

Any retail client

To the extent that the firm is acting as issuer of a contingent convertible instrument, the restrictions only apply to the original issuance of the contingent convertible instrument and not to subsequent trading in the secondary market.

Indirect investment

Any retail client

The restrictions do not apply in relation to a beneficial interest in a contingent convertible instrument acquired through participation in a regulated collective investment scheme, investment in a non-mainstream pooled investment (provided it is not a CoCo fund), or membership of an occupational pension scheme.

Note 1

A person is connected with a firm if it acts as an introducer or appointed representative for that firm or if it is any other person, regardless of authorisation status, who has a relevant business relationship with the firm.

Note 2

See COBS 2.4 for rules and guidance on agent as client and reliance on others.

PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
COBS 14.3.3RRP
If a firm provides a retail client with information about a designated investment that is the subject of a current offer to the public and a prospectus has been published in connection with that offer in accordance with the Prospectus Directive, that firm must inform the retail client where that prospectus is made available to the public. [Note: article 31(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
DTR 4.4.3RRP
The rules on half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to a credit institution whose shares are not admitted to trading and which has, in a continuous or repeated manner, only issued debt securities provided that:(1) the total nominal amount of all such debt securities remains below 100,000,000 Euros; and(2) the credit institution has not published a prospectus in accordance with the prospectus directive.[Note: article 8(2) of the TD]
COLL 6.1.3GRP
(1) The authorised fund manager operates the scheme on a day-to-day basis. Its operation is determined by the rules in this chapter, which require appropriate powers in the instrument constituting the fund3 or refer to the need to state the relevant operating procedures in the prospectus of the scheme.3(2) The authorised fund manager does not necessarily have to carry out all the activities it is responsible for and may delegate functions to other persons. The rules in this chapter
COLL 7.7.18RRP
Between the date when the information required under COLL 7.7.10 R is provided to unitholders and the date when the merger takes effect, the information document and the up-to-date key investor information of the receiving UCITS must be provided to each person who purchases or subscribes for units in either the merging UCITS or the receiving UCITS or who asks to receive copies of the instrument constituting the fund,5prospectus or key investor information of either scheme. 5[Note: