Related provisions for IFPRU 7.1.7
521 - 540 of 832 items.
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year4 of the compensation scheme:4(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
The following rules in FEES apply to VJ participants as part of the standard terms, but substituting 'VJ participant' for 'firm':(1) FEES 2.2.1 R (late payment) but substituting 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';2121(2) FEES 2.3.1 R and 2.3.2 R (remission of fees);(3) FEES 4.2.6 R (1)(b) (periodic fees);(4) FEES 5.3.6 R (general levy) but substituting:(a) 'Voluntary Jurisdiction' for 'Compulsory Jurisdiction' ; and(b) 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';2121(5) FEES 5.3.8 R (calculation of general
(1) 1This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a firm'sgeneral levy in the 12 months ending on the 31 March in which it obtains permission, or was authorised under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations4or had its permission and/or payment services activities extended (relevant permissions)3 and the following 12 months ending on the 31 March;3 and33(b) the tariff base for the industry blocks that relate to each of the relevant permissions3.3(2)
1The table below sets out the period within which a firm's tariff base is calculated (the data period) for second year levies calculated under FEES 5.8.2R. The example is based on a firm that acquires permission on 1 November 20146and has a financial year ending 31 March. Where valuation dates fall before the firm receives permission it should use projected valuations in calculating its levies.
References in this table to dates or months are references to the latest one occurring before the start of the FCA's financial year unless otherwise stated.
6Type of permission acquired on 1 November |
Tariff base |
Valuation date but for FEES 5.8.2R |
Data period under FEES 5.8.2R |
Insurers - general |
Relevant annual gross premium income and gross technical liabilities6 |
31 March 20146- so projected valuations will be used 6 |
1 November to 31 December 20146. 6 |
Portfolio managers (including those holding client money/ assets and not holding client money/ assets) 6 |
Relevant funds under management |
Valued at 31 December |
Valued at 31 December |
Advisers,6arrangers, dealers or brokers holding and controlling client money and/or assets 6 |
Annual income as defined in FEES 4 Annex 11A6 6 |
31 December. 6 This is because the firm's tariff base is calculated by reference to the firm's financial year end in the calendar year before the start of the FCAfee year. Therefore FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c) applies. 6 6 |
1 November to 31 December but annualised in accordance with FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c)(iii)6 6 |
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FCA; and(b) be carrying
(1) Subject to (3), a4firm must submit a completed CMAR to the FCA10 within 15 business days of the end of each month.410(2) In this rule month means a calendar month and SUP 16.3.13 R (4) does not apply.(3) 4A firm which changes its 'CASS firm type' and notifies the FCA10 that it is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R is not required to submit a CMAR in respect of the month in which the change to its 'CASS firm type' takes effect in accordance
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the Insurance Mediation Directive, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors
The FCA's3 penalty-setting regime is based on the following principles:3(1) Disgorgement - a firm or individual should not benefit from any breach;(2) Discipline - a firm or individual should be penalised for wrongdoing; and(3) Deterrence - any penalty imposed should deter the firm or individual who committed the breach, and others, from committing further or similar breaches.
(1) The total amount payable by a person subject to enforcement action may be made up of two elements: (i) disgorgement of the benefit received as a result of the breach; and (ii) a financial penalty reflecting the seriousness of the breach. These elements are incorporated in a five-step framework, which can be summarised as follows:(a) Step 1: the removal of any financial benefit derived directly from the breach;(b) Step 2: the determination of a figure which reflects the seriousness
The high level requirement for appropriate systems and controls at SYSC 3.1.1 R applies at all times, including when a business continuity plan is invoked. However, the appropriate regulator recognises that, in an emergency, a firm may be unable to comply with a particular rule and the conditions for relief are outlined in GEN 1.3 (Emergency).
A firm should document its strategy for maintaining continuity of its operations, and its plans for communicating and regularly testing the adequacy and effectiveness of this strategy. A firm should establish:(1) formal business continuity plans that outline arrangements to reduce the impact of a short, medium or long-term disruption, including:(a) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(b) the recovery
The FCA considers that ‘in the course of business’ requires a commercial interest on the part of the communicator. This does not necessarily have to be a direct interest. And the communicator does not need to be carrying on regulated activities (the test in section 19 of the Act) as or as part of his business. Neither does the communication need to be made in the course of carrying on activities as a business in their own right (the test in article 3 of the Financial Services
The position is slightly more blurred with individuals. The ‘in the course of business’ test is intended to exclude genuine non-business communications. Examples of these would be friends talking in a pub, letters between family members or e-mails sent by individuals using an Internet chat-room or bulletin board for personal reasons. An issue arises where capital is raised for small private companies. Where such a company is already in operation, it will be acting ‘in the course
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
The only kind of body corporate of an open-ended kind that may currently be formed under the law of the United Kingdom is one that is authorised by the FCA. A person intending to form an open-ended body corporate that has its head office in Great Britain should refer to the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1228). Bodies corporate formed under these Regulations are referred to in the Handbook as investment companies with variable capital (or ' ICVCs ').
Article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services) excludes from FCA regulation certain regulated activities carried on by providers of non-motor goods and services related to travel in relation to contracts of insurance that satisfy a number of conditions. Details about the scope of this exclusion can be found at PERG 5.11.13 G to PERG 5.11.15 G (Activities carried on by a provider of relevant goods or services)
Article 331(2) of the EU CRR (Interest rate risk in derivative instruments) states conditions that must be met before a firm not using interest rate pre-processing models can fully offset interest-rate risk on derivative instruments. One of the conditions is that the reference rate (for floating-rate positions) or coupon (for fixed-rate positions) should be 'closely matched'. The FCA will normally consider a difference of less than 15 basis points as indicative of the reference
(1) The FCA's starting assumption is that all overshootings should be taken into account for the purpose of the calculation of addends. If a firm believes that an overshooting should not count for that purpose, then it should seek a variation of its VaR model permission under article 363 of the EU CRR (Permission to use internal models) in order to exclude that particular overshooting. The FCA would then decide whether to agree to such a variation. (2) One example of when a firm's
The FCA maintains a published list of non-EEA States which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
2In general, although the legislation governing transfers of engagements involves friendly societies is the Friendly Societies Act 1992, similar issues arise in these transfers as in insurance business transfers under Part VII of the Act and so the regulators would expect firms to be subject to a similar process followed under the Act. Accordingly, firms should usually first discuss the procedural aspects for dealing with friendly society transfers and amalgamations with the PRA.
Amendments to a friendly society's registered rules may be necessary to permit a transfer to it. The FCA2 will need to be consulted in the usual way about registration of the appropriate rules. Similarly for an amalgamation, each of the amalgamating societies has to approve the memorandum and rules of the new society and the requirements of schedule 3 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 have to be met. It will be necessary to allow adequate time for these processes.2
Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992:(1) when the members of a transferor society have approved the transfer of its engagements by passing a special resolution and the transferee has approved the transfer (by passing a resolution where the transferee is a friendly society); or(2) when two or more societies have approved a proposed amalgamation by passing a special resolution;it, or they jointly, must then obtain confirmation by the appropriate authority2 of the transfer. Notice
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities; |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the
1The disclosure rules apply as follows:(1) DTR 1 and DTR 2 apply to an issuer whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom or for which a request for admission to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom has been made;(2) DTR 3 applies to an issuer that is incorporated in the United Kingdom:(a) whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or(b) for whose financial instruments a request
Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure rules apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32. [intentionally blank]3Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FCA website.33
The requirements in CASS 6.6.2 R to CASS 6.6.4 R are for a firm to keep internal records and accounts of clients'safe custody assets. Therefore any records falling under those requirements should be maintained by the firm, and should be separate to any records the firm may have obtained from any third parties, such as those with whom it may have deposited, or through whom it may have registered legal title to, clients'safe custody assets.
A firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) its internal records and accounts of the safe custody assets held by the firm for clients are materially out of date, or materially inaccurate or invalid, so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 6.6.2 R to CASS 6.6.4 R; or(2) if it is a firmacting as trustee or depositary of an AIF and has not complied with, or is materially unable to comply with, the requirements in CASS 6.6.2 R or in
A firm should carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and GENPRU 1.2.39 R at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate. The appropriateness of the internal process, and the degree of involvement of senior management in the process, will be taken into account by the appropriate regulator
The purpose of GENPRU 1.2.51 R – GENPRU 1.2.53 R is to enable the appropriate regulator to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) or INSPRU 6.1 (Group risk: