Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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DISP 2.8.2RRP
19The Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint if the complainant refers it to the Financial Ombudsman Service:(1) more than six months after the date on which the respondent sent the complainant its final response or redress determination or summary resolution communication; or3(2) more than: (a) six years after the event complained of; or (if later)(b) three years from the date on which the complainant became aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he had cause for
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
PR 5.3.2RRP
(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FCA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.
PR 5.3.4GRP
If the FCA receives information referred to in section 87H from another competent authority it will as soon as practicable give notice on the FCA website that it has received the information.11
DEPP 6A.1.1GRP
1DEPP 6A sets out the FCA's2 statement of policy with respect to the imposition of suspensions or restrictions, and the period for which those suspensions or restrictions are to have effect, under the Act, as required by sections 69(1), 88C(1), 89S(1)2 and 210(1) of the Act. 2
DEPP 6A.1.2GRP
(1) For the purposes of DEPP 6A, "suspension" refers to the suspension of:2(a) any permission which an authorised person has to carry on a regulated activity (under section 206A of the Act),2(b) any approval of the performance by an approved person of any function to which the approval relates (under section 66 of the Act),2(c) a sponsor's approval (under section 88A(2)(b) of the Act),2(d) and a primary information provider's approval (under section 89Q(2)(b) of the Act); and2(2)
DEPP 6A.1.4GRP
The powers to impose a suspension or a restriction in relation to authorised persons and approved persons are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised person, the FCA2 will seek to cancel or vary the authorised person'spermissions. If the FCA2 has concerns with a person's fitness to be approved, and considers it necessary to take action, the FCA2 will seek to prohibit the approved person
SUP 10A.14.4DRP
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant-influence function for any firm or has not been subject to a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant-influence function
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

4(3A)

But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -

(a)

the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.
PR 3.4.2RRP
A supplementary prospectus must also if necessary include an amendment or supplement to the summary, and any translations of the summary, to take into account the new information. [ Note: article 16.1 PD ]Note:Sections 87Q(4) and (5) of the Act set4 out the rights of investors to withdraw their acceptances after a supplementary prospectus is published.4
PR 3.4.3RRP
1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FCA for approval.33
COLL 7.7.2GRP
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established
COLL 7.7.6GRP
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FCA to give prior
COLL 7.7.10RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
COLL 7.7.21GRP
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of
SUP 13.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
SUP 13.1.3AGRP
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.
SUP 13.1.5GRP
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
PERG 9.6.3GRP
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FCA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
PERG 9.6.5GRP
Certain matters are to be disregarded in determining whether the investment condition is satisfied. Section 236(4) of the Act states that, for these purposes, no account is to be taken of any actual or potential redemption or repurchase of shares or securities under:(1) Chapters 3 to 71 of Part 181 of the Companies Act 2006;1or1(2) [deleted]11(3) corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State; or(4) provisions in force in a country or territory other than an EEA State
PERG 9.6.7GRP
The FCA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
BIPRU 9.3.9GRP
1In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.3.7R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) to require the firm to increase its risk weighted exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the appropriate
BIPRU 9.3.12GRP
1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.3.11D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
BIPRU 9.3.21GRP
1Subject to BIPRU 9.3.22G, BIPRU 9.15.9R and BIPRU 9.15.10R, where the originator or sponsor of a securitisation fails to meet any of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.18R to BIPRU 9.3.20R (disclosure requirements) in any material respect by reason of its negligence or omission, the appropriate regulator will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to impose an additional risk weight of no less than 250% (capped at 1250%) of the
COND 1.2.2GRP
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
COND 1.2.3GRP
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
COND 1.2.5GRP
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
BIPRU 12.9.9GRP
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the appropriate regulator will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The appropriate regulator will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The appropriate regulator will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date
BIPRU 12.9.15GRP
As part of the appropriate regulator's enquiry into the reasons for a firm's deviation, or expected deviation, from its individual liquidity guidance or, as the case may be, its simplified buffer requirement, the appropriate regulator may ask for further assessments and analyses of a firm's liquidity resources and the risks faced by the firm. The appropriate regulator may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act to assist in such circumstances.
BIPRU 12.9.21GRP
If agreement through discussion with the appropriate regulator cannot be reached as to the necessary actions and timescales to remedy deviation from that guidance, the appropriate regulator will consider using its powers under the Act (for example, its power under section 55J to vary, on its own initiative, a firm'sPart 4A permission or its power of intervention under section 196) so as to require the firm to take such actions as the appropriate regulator considers are necessary
PERG 1.5.1GRP
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed
PERG 1.5.2GRP
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
PERG 1.5.3GRP
In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ) or the Perimeter Enquiries Team (email autho
PERG 2.4.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question
PERG 2.4.3GRP
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
PERG 2.4.5GRP
A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context
COND 1.1A.1GRP
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
COND 1.1A.3GRP
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND 1.1A.5AGRP
(1) 2The FCAthreshold conditions apply to a person that carries on, or seeks to carry on, only relevant credit activities (within paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) and which therefore has, or is applying for, limited permission with a number of modifications (see article 10(19) of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order). Regulated activities a person carries on in relation to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D)
COLL 6.5.7RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager3 of an AUT3 or ACS3 is subject to removal by written notice by the depositary3 upon any of the following events:33(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the authorised fund manager3;3(b) an application being made to dissolve the authorised fund manager3 or to strike it off the Register of Companies;3(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the authorised fund manager3;3(d) the making of, or any proposals
COLL 6.5.8RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
SUP 11.5.8GRP
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.75355
SUP 11.5.9GRP
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 in respect of all those firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA in respect of all those firms which are not PRA-authorised persons.7 The section 178 notice5should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information
SUP 11.5.10GRP
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
COLL 7.4.2AGRP

1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FCArules

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 251 of the Act.

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4))

Step number

Explanation

When

COLLrule (unless stated otherwise)

1

Receive FCA approval

N + one month

On receipt of notice from the FCA

Section 251 of the Act

2

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders

E

7.4.3R

3

Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds

ASAP after E

7.4.4R(1) to (5)

4

Send annual long report of manager and trustee to the FCA

Within 4 months of FAP

7.4.5R(5)

5

Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.4.4R(6)
COLL 7.4.3RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the events or dates referred to in (2) and not otherwise:1(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the AUT or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund;1(b) the trustee must cease to issue and cancel1units, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4.4 R (1) or (2);11(c) the manager must cease to sell and redeem units; (d) the manager
SUP 5.4.1GRP
Where the appropriate regulator requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions
SUP 5.4.1AGRP
2Where the appropriate regulator requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
SUP 5.4.6GRP
Where the2skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 the skilled person who will make the report or collect or update the relevant information.2 The Act requires that such2skilled person be nominated or approved by the appropriate regulator:22222(1) if the appropriate regulator2 decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the
PERG 2.11.1GRP
3Various persons are exempted by Order made by the Treasury under section 38 of the Act from the need to obtain authorisation for certain credit-related regulated activities in the circumstances specified in the Order (for example, in some cases, a person is exempt only when acting in a particular capacity or for particular purposes). Persons exempt under the Order cannot be exempt in relation to some regulated activities and authorised in relation to others (except where the