Related provisions for SUP 14.3.10

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GEN 1.2.2ARRP
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
COLL 7.2.1ARRP
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
SUP 13.2.4GRP
7In SUP 13 the "appropriate UK regulator" amounts to whichever of the FCA and the PRA is the competent authority for authorising the relevant UKfirm.
REC 2.7.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.

(2)

In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -

(a)

the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];

(b)

rules relating to transactions on the market;

(c)

its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE];

(d)

conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and

(e)

the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE].

(3)

Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only -

(a)

an investment firm,

(b)

a credit institution, or

(c)

a person who -

(i)

is fit and proper,

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence,

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d).

(4)

Rules under this paragraph must enable -

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or

(b)

a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive,

by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities.

3

(6)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.
DISP 1.3.2AGRP
416These procedures should, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the respondent's business, ensure that lessons learned as a result of determinations by the Ombudsman are effectively applied in future complaint handling, for example by:(1) relaying a determination by the Ombudsman to the individuals in the respondent who handled the complaint and using it in their training and development;(2) analysing any patterns in determinations by the Ombudsman concerning
MAR 5.6.1RRP
1A firm operating an MTF must:(1) report to the FCA:(a) significant breaches of the firm's rules;(b) disorderly trading conditions; and(c) conduct that may involve market abuse; (2) supply the information required under this rule without delay to the FCA and any other authority competent for the investigation and prosecution of market abuse; and (3) provide full assistance to the FCA, and any other authority competent for the investigation and prosecution of market abuse, in
REC 3.19.1RRP
Where a UK recognised body becomes aware that a person has been appointed by any regulatory body (other than the FCA2or a UK recognised body) to investigate:2(1) any business transacted by means of its facilities or12(2) any aspect of the clearing facilitation services2 which it provides;2it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event.2
DTR 5.4.4RRP
A parent undertaking which wishes to make use of the exemption in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market must without delay, notify the following to the FCA:1(1) a list of the names of those management companies, investment firms or other entities, indicating the competent authorities that supervise them, but with no reference to the issuers concerned; and(2) a statement that, in the case of each such management company
COLL 4.5.14RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)
DEPP 6.5A.3GRP
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
SUP 15.9.4RRP
A firm does not have to give notice to the appropriate regulator5 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:5(1) the appropriate regulator;5 or5(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article
DEPP 6.5B.3GRP
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
SYSC 21.1.2GRP
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for