Related provisions for SUP 1A.4.7
441 - 460 of 828 items.
(1) The Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the appropriate regulator expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should in particular note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5 G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures and practices to be
In a rights issue, the FCA may list the equity securities6 at the same time as they 6are admitted to trading in nil paid form. On the equity securities6 being paid up and the allotment becoming unconditional, the listing will continue without any need for a further application to list fully paid securities.
8On each occasion that the listed company plans to use an on-screen intra-day price it should discuss the source of the price in advance with the FCA. The FCA may be satisfied that there is sufficient justification for its use if the alternative market has an appropriate level of liquidity and the source is one that is widely accepted by the market.
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
11Article 24A(2) of the RAO provides that bidding in emissions auctions does not form part of any other regulated activity and so, although in the FCA's view this activity broadly equates to the regulated activities of dealing in investments as principal, dealing in investments as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, a person seeking to carry on this activity will only require permission for bidding
8In the FCA's view, it is generally the case that providers of back office administration services do not carry out the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments. This is based essentially on the fact that providers of back office administration services aim to assist a broker firm to deal with the aftermath of transactions it has entered into on behalf of its clients. The broker firm has assumed full responsibility to its clients for
(1) 8The scope of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order (the subject of PERG 2.7.7B G) was considered by the High Court in the case of Watersheds Limited v. David Da Costa and Paul Gentlemen. The judgement suggests that the activity of introducing does not itself constitute a regulated activity for the purposes of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order. The FCA has considered whether the judgement necessitates any change to the views expressed in PERG 2.7.7B
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FCA would reasonably view as significant.
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
Cases (a) to (h) in DTR 5.2.1 R identify situations where a person may be able to control the manner in which voting rights are exercised and where, (taking account of any aggregation with other holdings) a notification to the issuer may need to be made. In the FCA's view:(1) Case (e) produces the result that it is always necessary for the parent undertaking of a controlled undertaking to aggregate its holding with any holding of the controlled undertaking (subject to the exemptions
A person falling within Cases (a) to (h) is an indirect holder of shares for the purpose of the definition of shareholder. These indirect holdings have to be aggregated, but also separately identified in a notification to the issuer. Apart from those identified in the Cases (a) to (h), the FCA does not expect any other significant category "indirect shareholder" to be identified. Cases (a) to (h) are also relevant in determining whether a person is an indirect holder of qualifying
Part 1 of the table of FCA controlled functions applies in relation to an FCA-authorised person. It also applies in relation to an appointed representative for the purposes of SUP 10A.1.15 R (Appointed representatives) whether its principal is an FCA-authorised person or a PRA-authorised person. Part 2 applies in relation to a PRA-authorised person.
The obligations to supply information to:(1) the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8 R or SUP 10A.14.10 R;(2) another firm under SUP 10A.15.1 R;apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its
An issuer, person discharging managerial responsibilities or connected person should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:
- (1)
are in doubt about how the disclosure rules apply in a particular situation; or
- (2)
consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a disclosure rule.
1Where a disclosure rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.
Address for correspondence
Note: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:
Primary Market Monitoring |
Markets Division |
The Financial Conduct Authority |
25 The North Colonnade |
Canary Wharf |
London E14 5HS |
(1) If a firm'sremuneration policy is not aligned with effective risk management it is likely that employees will have incentives to act in ways that might undermine effective risk management.(2) The Remuneration Code covers all aspects of remuneration that could have a bearing on effective risk management including salaries, bonuses, long-term incentive plans, options, hiring bonuses, severance packages and pension arrangements. In applying the Remuneration Code, a firm should
(1) The specific remuneration requirements in this chapter may apply only in relation to certain categories of employee. But the appropriate regulator would expect firms, in complying with the Remuneration Code general requirement, to apply certain principles on a firm-wide basis.(2) In particular, the appropriate regulator considers that firms should apply the principle relating to guaranteed variable remuneration on a firm-wide basis (Remuneration Principle 12(c); SYSC 19A.3.40
(1) Notification of suspicious transactions to the FCA4 requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction might constitute market abuse. In particular a firm will need to be able to explain the basis for its suspicion when notifying the FCA4 (see SUP 15.10)4. Certain transactions by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious, but might deliver such indications of possible market abuse,
An investment firm or a credit institution making a notification to the FCA4 under this section may do so:4(1) by mail to:Market Conduct Team25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS;4 or(2) by electronic mail to market.abuse@fca.org.uk;44(3) by facsimile to the Market Conduct Team on 020 7066 40914; or4(4) by telephone to the market abuse helpline 020 7066 49004. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
Subject to3FEES 6.3.22 R, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:33(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied and:33(a) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the sum to be levied on participants in activity groups A.1, A.3, A.4, A.5 and A.6 (as listed in FEES 4 Annex 1B R); and10(b) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the
4The FSCS must allocate any specific costs levy:(1) first, amongst the relevant classes in proportion to the amount of relevant costs arising from the different activities for which firms in those classes have permission up to the levy limit of each relevant class. The FCA provider contribution classes are not relevant classes for this purpose; and(2) thereafter, where the levy limit has been reached (whether as a result of compensation costs or specific costs or both) for a class
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:3(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
As soon as a SRB agreement provider has provided the written pre-offer document at Stage One to a SRB agreement seller who is in arrears under his regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan on the property to which the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement relates, it must, in a durable medium, immediately notify the mortgage lender, home purchase provider or the providers of other loans that may be secured on the property:(1) explaining that the firm is proposing
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
This chapter does not apply to: (1) a PRA authorised person; (2) an RRD group member that is: (a) a qualifying parent undertaking of a PRAauthorised person; and(b) subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the PRA; and(3) a qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of a PRA authorised person.