Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
361 - 380 of 457 items.
The exemptions apply so as to confer exemption on persons from the general prohibition in respect of four distinct categories of regulated activities.(1) The first category is carrying on any regulated activity, apart from effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance (or agreeing to do so). Exempt persons here are generally supranational bodies of which the United Kingdom or another EEA State is a member.(2) The second category is the regulated activity of accepting deposits.
2(1) A CRR firm that is significant must ensure that the members of the management body of the firm do not hold more than one of the following combinations of directorship in any organisation at the same time:(a) one executive directorship with two non-executive directorships; and(b) four non-executive directorships. (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to members of the management body that represent the United Kingdom.[Note: article 91(3) of CRD]
A person who is concerned to know whether his communications will require approval or, if he is an authorised person, whether the appropriate financial promotion rules1 will apply to his communications will need to consider the following:1(1) am I making a communication or causing a communication to be made? (see PERG 8.6);(2) if so, is it an invitation or inducement? (see PERG 8.4);(3) if so, does the invitation or inducement relate to a controlled investment? (see PERG 8.7);(4)
In a few instances, the requirements of a particular exemption may affect the practicality of its being combined with another. These are article 12 (Communications to overseas recipients) and article 52 (Common interest group of a company). Article 12, for example, requires that financial promotions must be made to or directed only at overseas persons and certain persons in the United Kingdom. This presents no difficulty with article 12 being combined with other exemptions in
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)
(1) Either:11(a) the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed); or1(b) the authorised contractual scheme manager or the depositary of the ACS (as nominated in the contractual scheme deed);1must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.1(2) The manager or trustee or the authorised fund manager or depositary1 in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps
LR 9.3.11 R does not apply to:8(1) a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom if a 8disapplication of statutory pre-emption rights has been authorised by shareholders in accordance with section 57053(Disapplication of pre-emption rights: directors acting under general authorisation) or section 571 (Disapplication of pre-emption rights by special resolution) of the Companies Act 2006 and the issue of equity securities78 or sale of treasury shares that are equity shares
1This chapter provides guidance in relation to business transfers.(1) SUP 18.2 applies to any firm or to any underwritingmember or any former member3 of Lloyd's proposing to transfer the whole or part of its business by an insurance business transfer scheme or to accept such a transfer. Some of the guidance in this chapter, for example, at3SUP 18.2.31 G to SUP 18.2.41 G also applies3 to the independent expert making the scheme report.33(2) SUP 18.3 applies to any firm proposing
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
For FEES 10.2.4 R, a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(1) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the cost of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business is disproportionate to the difference in the pensions guidance levy payable by it; and(2) it notifies the FCA in writing: (a) at the same time as it provides the information concerned under FEES 4.4 (Information on which
The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Voluntary Jurisdiction if:427(1) it is not covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction;831 and427(2) it relates to an act or omission by a VJ participant in carrying on one or more of the following activities:(a) an activity carried on after 28 April 1988 which:(i) was not a regulated activity at the time of the act or omission, but(ii) was a regulated activity when the VJ participant joined the Voluntary Jurisdiction (or became an
(1) Before making a regulated credit agreement the firm must:(a) provide the customer with an adequate explanation of the matters referred to in (2) in order to place the customer in a position to assess whether the agreement is adapted to the customer's needs and financial situation;(b) advise the customer:(i) to consider the information which is required to be disclosed under section 55 of the CCA; and(ii) where the information is disclosed in person, that the customer is able
An auditor which a firm proposes to appoint should have skills, resources and experience commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed auditor has expertise in the relevant requirements and standards (which may involve access to UK expertise) and possesses or has access to appropriate specialist skill, for example