Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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PERG 2.10.8GRP
The exemptions apply so as to confer exemption on persons from the general prohibition in respect of four distinct categories of regulated activities.(1) The first category is carrying on any regulated activity, apart from effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance (or agreeing to do so). Exempt persons here are generally supranational bodies of which the United Kingdom or another EEA State is a member.(2) The second category is the regulated activity of accepting deposits.
SYSC 4.3A.6RRP
2(1) A CRR firm that is significant must ensure that the members of the management body of the firm do not hold more than one of the following combinations of directorship in any organisation at the same time:(a) one executive directorship with two non-executive directorships; and(b) four non-executive directorships. (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to members of the management body that represent the United Kingdom.[Note: article 91(3) of CRD]
PERG 8.2.4GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his communications will require approval or, if he is an authorised person, whether the appropriate financial promotion rules1 will apply to his communications will need to consider the following:1(1) am I making a communication or causing a communication to be made? (see PERG 8.6);(2) if so, is it an invitation or inducement? (see PERG 8.4);(3) if so, does the invitation or inducement relate to a controlled investment? (see PERG 8.7);(4)
PERG 8.11.4GRP
In a few instances, the requirements of a particular exemption may affect the practicality of its being combined with another. These are article 12 (Communications to overseas recipients) and article 52 (Common interest group of a company). Article 12, for example, requires that financial promotions must be made to or directed only at overseas persons and certain persons in the United Kingdom. This presents no difficulty with article 12 being combined with other exemptions in
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)
COLL 6.4.4RRP
(1) Either:11(a) the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed); or1(b) the authorised contractual scheme manager or the depositary of the ACS (as nominated in the contractual scheme deed);1must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.1(2) The manager or trustee or the authorised fund manager or depositary1 in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps
LR 9.3.12RRP
LR 9.3.11 R does not apply to:8(1) a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom if a 8disapplication of statutory pre-emption rights has been authorised by shareholders in accordance with section 57053(Disapplication of pre-emption rights: directors acting under general authorisation) or section 571 (Disapplication of pre-emption rights by special resolution) of the Companies Act 2006 and the issue of equity securities78 or sale of treasury shares that are equity shares
SUP 18.1.1GRP
1This chapter provides guidance in relation to business transfers.(1) SUP 18.2 applies to any firm or to any underwritingmember or any former member3 of Lloyd's proposing to transfer the whole or part of its business by an insurance business transfer scheme or to accept such a transfer. Some of the guidance in this chapter, for example, at3SUP 18.2.31 G to SUP 18.2.41 G also applies3 to the independent expert making the scheme report.33(2) SUP 18.3 applies to any firm proposing
SUP 8.6.2GRP
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
FEES 10.2.6RRP
For FEES 10.2.4 R, a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(1) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the cost of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business is disproportionate to the difference in the pensions guidance levy payable by it; and(2) it notifies the FCA in writing: (a) at the same time as it provides the information concerned under FEES 4.4 (Information on which
DISP 2.5.1RRP
The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Voluntary Jurisdiction if:426(1) it is not covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction;830 and426(2) it relates to an act or omission by a VJ participant in carrying on one or more of the following activities:(a) an activity carried on after 28 April 1988 which:(i) was not a regulated activity at the time of the act or omission, but(ii) was a regulated activity when the VJ participant joined the Voluntary Jurisdiction (or became an
CONC 4.2.5RRP
(1) Before making a regulated credit agreement the firm must:(a) provide the customer with an adequate explanation of the matters referred to in (2) in order to place the customer in a position to assess whether the agreement is adapted to the customer's needs and financial situation;(b) advise the customer:(i) to consider the information which is required to be disclosed under section 55 of the CCA; and(ii) where the information is disclosed in person, that the customer is able
LR 17.3.8GRP
An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under DTR 2 (Disclosure and control of inside information by issuers).1
SUP 3.4.4GRP
An auditor which a firm proposes to appoint should have skills, resources and experience commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed auditor has expertise in the relevant requirements and standards (which may involve access to UK expertise) and possesses or has access to appropriate specialist skill, for example
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.