Related provisions for SUP 18.3.5

161 - 180 of 190 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

FEES 4.3.2GRP
(1) The amount payable by each firm will depend upon the category (or categories) of regulated activities or payment services7it is engaged in (fee-blocks)and whether it is issuing electronic money,10 and on the amount of business it conducts in each category (tariff base). The fee-blocks and tariffs are identified in FEES 4 Annex 1AR in respect of the FCA and FEES 4 Annex 1BR in respect of the PRA2727 (and guidance on calculating certain of the tariffs is at FEES 4 Annex 12
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the appropriate regulator will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences
BIPRU 8.1.2ARRP
3A firm is not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 where any of the following conditions are fulfilled:(1) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by the FCA or PRA under the EUCRR; or(2) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by a competent authority other than the FCA under the EUCRR as implemented by that competent authority.
REC 6A.2.2GRP
A requirement is relevant if it is imposed:(1) by the operator's Home State regulator in the implementation of MiFID or any EU2 legislation made under MiFID;2(2) by provision implementing MiFID, or any EU2 legislation made under it, in the operator's Home State; or2(3) by any directly applicable EU2 regulation made under MiFID.2
DTR 5.8.2RRP
(1) A notification required of voting rights arising from the holding of financial instruments must include the following information:(a) the resulting situation in terms of voting rights;(b) if applicable, the chain of controlled undertakings through which financial instruments are effectively held;(c) the date on which the threshold was reached or crossed;(d) for instruments with an exercise period, an indication of the date or time period where shares will or can be acquired,
APER 1.1A.4GRP
The relevance of MiFID to the Statements of Principle will depend on the extent to which the corresponding requirement imposed on firms under MiFID is reserved to a Home State regulator or has been disapplied under MiFID (see APER 2.1A.2 P and FIT 1.2.4 G. See also COBS 1 Annex 1, Part 2, 1.1R (EEA territorial scope rule: compatibility with European law)).
REC 4.5.3GRP
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
LR 8.7.5GRP
The FCA, on behalf of other regulators, may request information from a sponsor or pass information on to other regulators to enable such regulators to discharge their functions.
COLL 2.1.5GRP
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS or2ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the appropriate regulator for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
CONC 2.10.20GRP
Where a firm understands, or reasonably suspects, a customer has or may have a mental capacity limitation the firm should take particular care that the customer is not provided with credit which the firm knows, or reasonably believes, to be unsuitable to the customer's needs, even where the credit would be affordable.[Note: paragraph 4.43 of MCG]
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344
GEN 4.3.1BGRP
15An example for GEN 4.3.1A G would be where a letter covers business for which the FCA is the competent authority under the Insurance Mediation Directive and under MiFID.
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3

54

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3

9

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A non-directive firm43

4

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3

5(2B)

(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21

944994494
BIPRU 7.4.23RRP
If a firm intends to rely on the approach in BIPRU 7.4.22R(1)(b):(1) it must notify the appropriate regulator in writing at least 20 business days prior to the date the firm starts relying on it; and(2) the firm must, as part of the notification under (1), provide to the appropriate regulator the analysis of price movements on which it relies.
DISP 3.5.12GRP
15The Ombudsman may take into account evidence from third parties, including (but not limited to) the FCA6 , other regulators, experts in industry matters and experts in consumer matters.6
FIT 1.2.4AGRP
2Under Article 5(1)(d) of the MiFID Implementing Directive and Article 31 and 32 of MiFID, the requirement to employ personnel with the knowledge, skills and expertise necessary for the discharge of the responsibilities allocated to them is reserved to the firm'sHome State. Therefore, in assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a controlled function solely in relation to the MiFID business of an incoming EEA firm, the appropriate regulator will not have regard
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.