Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19
141 - 160 of 285 items.
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
If a firm becomes aware at any time that its auditor is not independent of the firm, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that it has an auditor independent of the firm. The firm must notify the FCA and the PRA (if it is a PRA-authorisedfirm) or the FCA (in all other cases) if independence is not achieved within a reasonable time.
1A UK RIE and an RAP2must immediately notify the FCA3of:3(1) significant breaches of its rules; or(2) disorderly trading conditions on any of its markets or auctions.2[Note: Article 26(2), first sentence (part) and Article 43(2), first sentence (part) of MiFID. The rest of Article 26(2), first sentence (in so far as it relates to market operators operating an MTF) and Article 43(2), first sentence of MiFID is implemented by REC 3.21.1 R (2)]
Sections 393 (Third party rights) and 394 (Access to FCA1 material) of the Act confer additional procedural rights relating to third parties and to disclosure of FCA1 material. These rights apply in certain warning notice and decision notice cases referred to in section 392 of the Act (Application of sections 393 and 394). The cases in which these additional rights apply are identified in DEPP 2 Annex 1 by asterisks; these are generally cases in which the warning notice or decision
(1) This section applies to a firm which is subject to the prohibition on opening a current account for a disqualified person in section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014.(2) This section does not apply to a branch of a firm where the branch is established outside the United Kingdom.[Note: A firm is subject to the prohibition in section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 if it is a “bank” or “building society” for the purposes of section 42 of the Immigration Act 2014.]
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FCA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FCA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
In relation to an applicant firm wishing to rely on liquidity support from a parent undertaking constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator will ordinarily expect to reach agreement with the authority that regulates that undertaking for liquidity purposes in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will notify the appropriate regulator of any material or persistent breaches by that undertaking of that authority's
In relation to the applicant firm in question, the appropriate regulator will, before granting a whole-firm liquidity modification, ordinarily expect to have reached agreement with that firm in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will make available liquidity resources at all times to its UKbranch if needed;(2) it will make available to the appropriate regulator information in an appropriate format on firm-wide liquidity;(3) it will notify the appropriate regulator
In addition to the requirements set out in DTR 4.1 a listed company1 must include in its annual financial report1, where applicable, the following:1(1) a statement of the amount of interest capitalised by the group during the period under review with an indication of the amount and treatment of any related tax relief;(2) any information required by LR 9.2.18 R (Publication of unaudited financial information);(3) [deleted]1313(4) details of any long-term incentive schemes as required
(1) 4The effect of LR 9.8.6R (1) is that a listed company is required to set out a 'snapshot' of the total interests of a director and his or her connected persons, as at the end of the period under review (including certain information to update it as at a date not more than a month before the date of the notice of the annual general meeting). The interests that need to be set out are limited to those in respect of which transactions fall to be notified under the notification
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
A CASS debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) its internal records and accounts of client money are materially out of date or materially inaccurate so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 11.11.1 R to CASS 11.11.4 R; or(2) it becomes aware that, at any time in the preceding 12 months, the amount of client money segregated in its client bank accounts materially differed from the total aggregate amount of client
A CASS large debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm internal client money reconciliation in accordance with CASS 11.11.13 R it will be unable to, or materially fails to, pay any shortfall into (or withdraw any excess from) a client bank account so that the firm is unable to comply with CASS 11.11.23 R;(2) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm external client money
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator which method under BIPRU 8.7.13 R it applies for which consolidated requirement component and to which parts of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group it is applying an aggregation approach and to which parts it is applying an accounting consolidation approach.
(1) A firm may only treat an exposure as exempt under BIPRU 3.2.25 R (Zero risk-weighting for intra-group exposures) as applied on a consolidated basis if the member of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that has the exposure:(a) is a BIPRU firm and that exposure is exempt under BIPRU 3.2.25 R as it applies to that BIPRU firm on a solo basis; or(b) meets the conditions in BIPRU 3.2.25 R (1)(d) (Condition relating to establishment in the UK) and that exposure would
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.5820
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator49if it changes its accounting reference date.49(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the appropriate
Where the FCA is informed in accordance with COLL 11.3.9 R that a feeder UCITS which is an EEA UCITS scheme has invested in units of the master UCITS, section 261A and section 261Z41 (Information for home state regulator) of the Act and regulation 29A (Information for home state regulator) of the OEIC Regulations require the FCA to inform the Home State regulator of the feeder UCITS immediately.[Note: article 66(1) second sentence of the UCITS Directive]