Related provisions for REC 6A.2.3
221 - 240 of 386 items.
In the circumstances described
in DEPP 4.2.1 G (4) the FCA2 considers
that it may be necessary for an FCA2 director of division or member of a senior
staff committee to take the decision to give a supervisory notice even if he has been involved
in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, as permitted
by section 395(3) of the Act.
Where practicable, however, FCA2 staff will seek to ensure that the FCA2 director or committee member has not been so involved.2222
In the circumstances described in DEPP 3.4.3 G, the FCA1 considers that it may be necessary for an FCA1 director of division to take the decision to give the supervisory notice even if he has been involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, as permitted by section 395(3) of the Act. Where practicable, however, FCA1 staff will seek to ensure that the FCA1 director has not been so involved.1111
If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
(1) If the FCA considers that an issuer, a person discharging managerial responsibilities or a connected person has breached any of the disclosure rules it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty or publish a statement censuring that person.(2) If the FCA considers that a former director was knowingly concerned in a breach by an issuer it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty.
Rights conferred on third parties (such as a firm'sclients) cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. Guidance on rules, the Act or other legislation represents the FCA view, and does not bind the courts, for example in relation to an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)) or in relation to enforceability of a contract if the general prohibition is breached (sections 26 and 27 of the Act (Enforceability
By waiving or modifying the requirements
of a rule or imposing an additional requirement or limitation,
the FCA2 can
ensure that the rules, and
any other requirements or limitations imposed on a firm,
take full account of the firm's individual
circumstances, and so assist the FCA2 in
meeting its2statutory
objectives under the Act.2221
The FCA1 has similar powers to supervise ROIEs1 to those it has to supervise UK RIEs1. It may (in addition to any other powers it might exercise):111(1) give directions to an ROIE1 under section 296 of the Act (Authority's power to give directions) if it has failed, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the recognition requirements or if it has failed to comply with any other obligation imposed by or under the Act; or1(2) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking
(1) The Supervision manual (SUP) and Decision Procedure and Penalties
manual (DEPP) form the Regulatory
Processes part of the Handbook.(2) SUP sets
out the relationship between the FCA and authorised persons (referred to in the Handbook as firms).
As a general rule, SUP contains
material that is of continuing relevance after authorisation.(3) DEPP is
principally concerned with and sets out the FCA's decision
making procedures that involve the giving of statutory
notices, the FCA's
1This
manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved
persons and other persons,
whether or not they are regulated by the FCA.5 It sets out:5(1) the FCA's5 decision-making procedure for giving statutory
notices. These are warning
notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);5(1A) the FCA's decision-making
procedure in cases where the PRA is
required to seek the FCA's consent
before approving an application (a) for Part
4A permission; (b) for the variation
(1) An authorised fund manager must, for each UCITS scheme which it manages, draw up a short document in English containing key investor information (a "key investor information document") for investors.(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in this document. (3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about the essential characteristics of the UCITS scheme which is to be provided to investors so that they are reasonably able to understand
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
(1) The FCA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under sections1 256 or 261W1 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ACS1, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FCA receives
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not