Related provisions for SUP 1A.4.7
261 - 280 of 817 items.
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
6The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the appropriate regulator's use of the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) and section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act. The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to give assistance to a skilled person and, where a firm is required to appoint a skilled person, to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person. These rules are designed to
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FCA6 receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FCA6 is in a better position to pursue the statutory objective6 of the protection of consumers.3666
(1) 1A firm must:(a) submit a report to the FCA6 annually, in the form of an amended copy of the relevant extract from the Financial Services Register,6 containing the information in (2);366(b) submit the report in (1) to the FCA6 within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.666(2) The report in (1) must contain a list of all the current appointed representatives of the firm as at the firm'saccounting reference date6.6(3) The report in (1) is not required if:(a) the
A domestic UCITS merger between two or more UCITS schemes, or a cross-border UCITS merger between one or more UCITS schemes which is or are the merging UCITS and one or more EEA UCITS schemes, is permissible provided:(1) it is effected in accordance with the requirements of:(a) the UCITS Regulations 2011, which include the need for the FCA to have made a prior order approving the proposed merger (which may be made subject to (2)); and(b) this chapter; and (2) in the case of a
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FCA to give prior
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
1A common
platform firm must:(1) when relying on a third party for
the performance of operational functions which are critical for the performance
of regulated activities, listed activities or ancillary
services (in this chapter "relevant services and activities")
on a continuous and satisfactory basis, ensure that it takes reasonable steps
to avoid undue additional operational risk; (2) not undertake the outsourcing of important operational functions
in such a way as to impair
A common platform firm must in particular
take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have
the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required
by law to perform the outsourced functions,
services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry
out the outsourced services
effectively, and to this end the firm must
establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the service
provider;(3)
A common platform firm must make available
on request to the appropriate
regulator and
any other relevant competent authority all
information necessary to enable the appropriate
regulator and
any other relevant competent authority to
supervise the compliance of the performance of the outsourced activities
with the requirements of the regulatory system.[Note: article
14(5) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
As SUP
15.3.8 G explains,
a firm should notify the appropriate
regulator when
it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions
which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and
activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity to an approved person (or persons) performing:(1) a governing function (other than the non-executive director function); or(2) the apportionment and oversight function; or(3) the significant management function in so far as it relates to dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so) or an activity which
(1) Typically a firm3 will appoint a person performing a governing function (other than the non-executive director function) to direct its insurance mediation activity. Where this responsibility is allocated to a person performing another function, the person performing the apportionment and oversight function with responsibility for the apportionment of responsibilities must ensure that the firm'sinsurance mediation activity is appropriately allocated.3(2) The descriptions of
The FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the persons to whom the responsibility for the firm'sinsurance mediation activity has been allocated. by inserting after the relevant controlled function the words "(insurance mediation)". In the case of a sole trader, the FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the sole trader as the 'contact person' in the firm.
So-called 'mortgage clubs' or 'wholesalers' essentially act as a distribution function for lenders, providing information to intermediaries about current deals available from a range of lenders. They provide information (often through an electronic sourcing system) in a way that helps intermediaries search the market effectively and, as such, do not deal directly with individual borrowers. If only engaged in these activities and without direct contact with individual borrowers,
So-called 'mortgage packaging companies' may undertake certain parts of the mortgage process for lenders on an outsourced basis, ensuring that a complete set of documentation is collated and sent to the lender. This might include receiving application forms from intermediaries, undertaking credit reference checks and instructing a valuer. Other activities might include a product placement service for other intermediaries who provide product advice or recommendations to their clients.
The term 'broker packagers' is typically used to describe intermediaries who either market their services directly to borrowers or who offer other intermediaries a complete mortgage outsourcing service. They are often involved in the sales and advice process, including helping the borrower complete application forms. In the FCA's view, broker packagers carrying on these types of activity in direct contact with the borrower are likely to be carrying on the regulated activities
For the purpose of article 282(6) of the EU CRR (Hedging sets), a firm must apply the CCR Mark-to-market method as set out in Part Three, Title II, Chapter 6, Section 3 (Mark-to-market method) of the EU CRR to:(1) transactions with non-linear risk profile; or(2) payment legs and transactions with debt instruments as underlying;for which it cannot determine the delta or the modified duration, as the case may be, using an internal model approved by the FCA under Part Three Title
(1) This guidance sets out the FCA's expectations for granting permission to a firm to use its own one-sided credit valuation adjustment internal models (an "internal CVA model") for the purpose of estimating the maturity factor "M", as proposed under article 162(2)(h) of the EU CRR (Maturity).(2) In the context of counterparty credit risk, the maturity factor "M" is intended to increase the own funds requirements to reflect potential higher risks associated with medium and long-term
(1) This guidance sets out the FCA's expectations for permitting a firm with the permission to use the Internal Model Method set out in Part Three, Title II, Chapter 6, Section 6 (Internal model method) and the permission to use an internal VaR model for specific risk set out in Part Three, Title IV, Chapter 5 (Use of internal models) associated with traded debt instruments to set to 1 the maturity factor "M" defined in article 162 of the EU CRR.(2) In the context of counterparty
A parent undertaking which wishes to make use of the exemption in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market must without delay, notify the following to the FCA:1(1) a list of the names of those management companies, investment firms or other entities, indicating the competent authorities that supervise them, but with no reference to the issuers concerned; and(2) a statement that, in the case of each such management company
Where the parent undertaking intends to benefit from the exemptions only in relation to the financial instruments referred to in Article 13 of the TD, it shall (in relation to financial instruments giving an entitlement to acquire shares which are admitted to trading on a regulated market) notify to the FCA only the list referred to in paragraph (1) of DTR 5.4.4 R.[Note: article 10(3) of the TD implementing Directive]
A parent undertaking of a management company or of an investment firm must in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market be able to demonstrate to the FCA on request that:1(1) the organisational structures of the parent undertaking and the management company or investment firm are such that the voting rights are exercised independently of the parent undertaking;(2) the persons who decide how the voting rights are exercised
A parent undertaking of a third country undertaking must comply with the notification requirements in DTR 5.4.4 R (1) and DTR 5.4.5 R and in addition: (1) must make a statement that in respect of each management company or investment firm concerned, the parent undertaking complies with the conditions of independence set down in DTR 5.4.10 R; and (2) must1 be able to demonstrate to the FCA on request that the requirements of DTR 5.4.6 R are respected.[Note: article 23 of the TD
4The FCA may authorise the omission of information required by LR 13.3 to LR 13.6, LR 13.8 and LR 13 Annex 1, if it considers that disclosure of that information would be contrary to the public interest or seriously detrimental to the listed company, provided that that omission would not be likely to mislead the public with regard to facts and circumstances, knowledge of which is essential for the assessment of the matter covered by the circular.
4A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific information in a particular case must:(1) be made in writing by the listed company;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the listed company's opinion one or more grounds in LR 13.1.7 G apply.
1This
chapter applies to:(1) a MiFID
investment firm;(2) a third country investment firm; and to(3) a person who
is the operator of an approved reporting
mechanism or of a regulated
market or MTF that
is used by a firm to report transactions to the FCA; and(4) a firm acting in its capacity as
a manager or operator of:(a) a collective investment undertaking;
or(b) a pension
scheme; or(c) an occupational
pension scheme; or(d) a personal
pension scheme; or(e) a stakeholder
pension
2In
line with guidance from CESR, the FCA acknowledges that, from a practical
point of view, it would be burdensome for branches of investment firms to be obliged to report
their transactions to two competent authorities. Therefore, all transactions executed by branches may
be reported to the competent authority of
the Host State, if the investment firm elects to do so. In these
cases transaction reports should
follow the rules of the competent authority to
which the report is
(1) The figure for the "return before operating charges" shown in the comparative table required by COLL 4.5.10R (1A) should include all costs and charges actually borne by the class of units it describes.(2) The indication of actual costs and charges borne by a class of units should cover pro-rata allocations of the operating charges borne by the scheme (e.g. annual management fee, fees and expenses payable to the depositary, auditors and FCA, costs of buying and selling units
(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS must:(a) where requested by an investor, provide copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS free of charge; and(b) file copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS with the
FCA
.(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS may
(1) 7The authorised fund manager of a feeder NURS must, where requested by an investor or the
FCA
, provide to such person copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent documents for a qualifying master scheme that is a recognised scheme) of its qualifying master scheme free of charge.(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent
The FCA22, (for FCA and PRA22periodic fees, FOS and FSCS levies and CFEB levies), expects11 to issue invoices at least 30 days before the date on which the relevant amounts fall due. Accordingly it will generally be the case that a person will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable.226723117232
Paragraphs 23(8) of Schedule 1ZA and paragraphs 31(7) of Schedule 1ZB of the Act permit the FCA and PRA respectively to recover fees (including in respect of the FCA,11 fees relating to payment services,5 the issuance of electronic money8 and, where relevant, FOS levies and CFEB levies6), and section 213(6) permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FCAPRA and FSCS respectively, and the FCA , PRA and FSCS, as relevant, will consider taking
In addition, the appropriate regulator may be entitled to take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of fees,6FOS levies and CFEB levies. The appropriate regulator6 may also take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of FOS case fees or 723 a723 share of the FSCS levy, after reference of the matter to the6appropriate regulator by the6FSCS. What action (if any) that is taken by the appropriate regulator will be decided upon in the light of the particular
(1) 1The FCA2will seek to deprive a firm of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA2 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.22(2) Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breachingFCArules2 or other requirements of the regulatory system and the breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA2 will seek to
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
(1) If the FCA2 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the firm who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FCA2 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA2 may do this include:222(a) where the FCA2 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;2(b) where previous FCA2 action in respect of similar breaches has failed
The FCA2 and the firm on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FCA2 and the firm concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step 1.22
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions. The FCA3threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions for which the FCA is responsible,3 which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retainPart 4A permission. A PRA-authorised person or, as appropriate, a firm seeking to become a PRA-authorised person must also satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible in order to be given and
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FCA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific
information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information
concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion
one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
The FCA2 will consider all the relevant circumstances of a case when it
determines the length of the period of suspension or restriction (if any)
that is appropriate for the breach concerned,
and is also a sufficient deterrent. Set out below is a list of factors that
may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these
factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors,
not listed, that are relevant.2
The following factors may be relevant
to determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension or restriction
to be imposed on a person under
the Act:(1) DeterrenceWhen determining
the appropriate length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA2 will
have regard to the principal purpose for which it imposes sanctions, namely
to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from
committing further
The FCA2 may delay the commencement of the period of suspension or restriction.
In deciding whether this is appropriate, the FCA2 will take into account all the circumstances of a case. Considerations
that may be relevant in respect of an authorised
person, sponsor or primary
information provider2 include:22(1) the impact of the suspension or
restriction on consumers;(2) any practical measures the authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2 needs to take before
1The FCA2 and
the person on whom a suspension
or restriction is to be imposed may seek to agree the length of the period
of suspension or restriction and other terms. In recognition of the benefits
of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the length of a period of suspension or restriction
which might otherwise have been imposed will be reduced to reflect the stage
at which the FCA2 and
the person concerned reached
an agreement.22
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations2 to give directions
The FCA's3 general approach to supervision is intended to ensure that:3(1) the FCA3 has sufficient assurance that recognised bodies continue at all times to satisfy the recognised body requirements; and2132(2) the FCA's3 supervisory resources are allocated, and supervisory effort is applied, in ways which reflect the actual risks to the regulatory objectives. 3
A firm does not have to give notice to the appropriate regulator5 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:5(1) the appropriate regulator;5 or5(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the appropriate regulator with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description