Related provisions for MCOB 11.6.27
21 - 40 of 45 items.
(1) 3(a) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.3(b) In particular, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must not solely or mechanistically rely on credit ratings issued by
Counterparty risk is the risk that the counterparty to a transaction could default before the final settlement of the transactions cash flows. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include whether the:(1) counterparty has an appropriate credit rating;(2) counterparty can unilaterally terminate the hedging agreement, and if so under what circumstances;(3) contractual arrangements contain appropriate termination procedures (for example, what provisions apply in the event of
Where MCOB 5.5.15 R(4) applies:(1) a firm must ask the customer relevant questions about his credit history or obtain information on his credit record from a credit reference agency;(2) a credit reference agency must not be used unless:(a) it would be quicker than asking the customer the relevant questions about his credit history; or(b) the customer is not able to provide sufficient information on his credit history.
If the availability of a facility is subject to a further credit assessment by the firm, an EAD/CF may not be required. However, the FCA expects this to be the case only if the subsequent credit assessment was of substantially equivalent rigour to that of the initial credit approval and if this includes a re-rating or a confirmation of the rating of the borrower.
In discharging its obligations under this section, a firm should also consider, together with any other relevant matters:(1) once a
safe custody asset2
has been lodged by the firm with the third party, the third party's performance of its services to the firm;2(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example Financial Reporting and Auditing Group (FRAG) 21 report or
(1) A firm must inform the account-holder in writing of the matters in (2) without delay where:(a) the account-holder overdraws on the current account without a pre-arranged overdraft, or exceeds a pre-arranged overdraft limit, for a period exceeding one month; (b) the amount of that overdraft or excess is significant throughout that period; (c) the overdraft or excess is a regulated credit agreement; and(d) the account-holder has not been informed in writing of the matters in
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of government and public securities.(2) Not more than 20% in value of the scheme property is to consist of deposits with a single body.(3) Not more than 10% in value of the scheme property is to consist of transferable securities or approved money-market instruments issued by any single body subject to COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index).(4) The limit of 10% in (3) is raised to 25% in value of the scheme property in respect of covered
(1) When an issuer is
permitted to delay public disclosure of inside
information in accordance with DTR 2.5.1 R, it may selectively disclose
that information to persons owing
it a duty of confidentiality.(2) Such selective disclosure may be
made to another person if it
is in the normal course of the exercise of his employment, profession or duties.
However, selective disclosure cannot be made to any person simply
because they owe the issuer a
duty of confidentiality. For example,
A firm must not enter into or arrange an execution-only sale for a equity release transaction unless:(1) the customer has rejected the advice given by the firm and instead requested an execution-only sale of an equity release transaction;(2) the customer has identified which particular equity release transaction he wishes to purchase, and specified to the firm at least the required additional information (where applicable);(3) after providing the required information in (2), the
More generally, having adequate prudential resources gives the firm a degree of resilience and some indication to customers of creditworthiness, substance and the commitment of its owners. Prudential standards aim to ensure that a firm has prudential resources which can provide cover for operational and compliance failures and pay redress, as well as reducing the possibility of a shortfall in funds and providing a cushion against disruption if the firm ceases to trade.
A firm must not enter into or arrange an execution-only sale for a regulated mortgage contract unless, except as provided in MCOB 4.8A.15 R:(1) for a new regulated mortgage contract not falling within MCOB 4.8A.10 R, the customer has identified the regulated mortgage contract he wishes to purchase, specifying to the firm at least the following information:(a) the name of the mortgage lender;(b) the rate of interest;(c) the interest rate type (that is, whether fixed, variable or
(1) A firm should balance the risk of a customer taking on unsustainable borrowing against inappropriately or unnecessarily denying credit to a customer. (2) Where a firm understands or reasonably suspects a customer has or may have a mental capacity limitation, it should undertake an appropriate and effective creditworthiness assessment or assessment required by CONC 5.2.2R (1) and it would be appropriate not to place over-reliance on information provided by the customer for
(1) A firm's trading name, internet address or logo, in particular, could fall within CONC 3.3.3 R. [Note: paragraph 5.2 (box) of ILG](2) If credit is described as pre-approved, in accordance with CONC 3.5.12 R the provision of the credit should be free of any conditions regarding the customer's credit status, and the lender or, in relation to a P2P agreement the operator of an electronic system in relation to lending, should have carried out the required assessment under CONC
(1) The retail and SME deposit3 component is the sum represented by:(a) 20% of a firm's Type A retail deposits;3(b) 10% of a firm's Type B retail deposits; and3(c) 20% of a firm's SME deposits.3(2) A firm must:(a) assess the likelihood that retail deposits that it holds will be withdrawn in response to actual or perceived changes in the firm's credit-worthiness; (b) calculate the amount of retail deposits that it assesses as having a higher than average likelihood of withdrawal
(1) A firm's risk management policies must take account of market risk, liquidity risk, and legal and operational risk that can be associated with CCR.(2) The firm must not undertake business with a counterparty without assessing its creditworthiness and must take due account of settlement and pre-settlement credit risk.(3) These risks must be managed as comprehensively as practicable at the counterparty level (aggregating CCRexposures with other credit exposures) and at the firm-wide