Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D
141 - 160 of 811 items.
The decision maker will:(1) consider whether the material on which the recommendation is based is adequate to support it; the decision maker may seek additional information about or clarification of the recommendation, which may necessitate additional work by the relevant FCA2 staff;2(2) satisfy itself that the action recommended is appropriate in all the circumstances;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) or of an EEA regulator under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator or
of the EEA regulator2 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FCA's3 statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction
under section 169(7) or
section 131FA2 has been given or the FCA3 is considering giving. The FCA3 is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by
section 169(9) and (11) and
section 131FA2 of the Act.
As required by section 169(10) and
section 131FA2 of the Act, the Treasury has approved
the statement of policy.333
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FCA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FCA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The FCA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FCA's own initiative if the FCA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FCA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FCA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FCA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
(1) The FCA2 attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FCA's2 assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FCA2 understanding of that firm's business.222(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FCA's2 policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FCA's2
In addition to the factors considered in Step 2 for cases against firms (DEPP 6.5A) and cases against individuals (DEPP 6.5B),1 the following considerations are relevant.1(1) In general, the FCA's2 approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.2(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FCA2 as to why
In applying the guidance in this section, the FCA2 may treat a report which is materially incomplete or inaccurate as not received until it has been submitted in a form which is materially complete and accurate. For the purposes of the guidance, the FCA2 may also treat a report as not received where the method by which it is submitted to the FCA2 does not comply with the prescribed method of submission.222
Standing data is used by the appropriate regulator20:20(1) to ensure that a firm is presented with the correct regulatory return when it seeks to report electronically;(2) in order to communicate with a firm;(3) as the basis for some sections of the Financial Services Register;20 and 20(4) in order to carry out thematic analysis across sectors and groups of firms.
(1) Within 30 business days of its accounting reference date, a firm must check the accuracy of its standing data through the relevant section of the appropriate regulator's20 website.20(2) [paragraph suspended by FSA 2004/79]5(3) If any standing data is incorrect, the firm must submit5 the corrected standing data to the appropriate regulator,205 using the appropriate form set out in SUP 15 Ann 3 and in accordance with SUP 16.10.4A R.55
(1) A firm other than: 88(a) a credit union; or8(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;8must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) online at 8the appropriate regulator's website20 using the ONA7system.20207(2) A credit union or a firm with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity8must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) to static.data@fca.org.uk or via post or
5If the FCA's20 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA20 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 16.3.9 R20 should be used.202020
The standing data is made available to the firm when the firm logs into the appropriate section of the appropriate regulator's20 website. The firm should check the standing data and send any corrections to the appropriate regulator20. The appropriate regulator's20 preferred method of receiving corrections to standing data is by the online forms available at the appropriate regulator's20 website.220202020
The FCA will determine, following consultation, the amount to be raised from each industry block. This will be based on the budgeted costs and numbers of Financial Ombudsman Service staff required to deal with the volume of complaints which the Financial Ombudsman Service expects to receive about the firms in each industry block. Modified arrangements have been made for certain types of small firms (see FEES 5.5.3 R to FEES 5.5.5 G).
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FCA's register at www.fca.org.uk/firms/systems-reporting/register.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FCA's register) it is reasonable, in the FCA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FCA would normally
In the FCA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable in connection with transfer of property to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a borrower. For example, article 28B allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
In the FCA's view, the provision of details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(ii) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FCA would
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
(1) 3(a) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.3(b) In particular, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must not solely or mechanistically rely on credit ratings issued by
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must assess, monitor and periodically review:(a) the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management policy and of the arrangements, processes and techniques referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R;(b) the level of compliance by the authorised fund manager or the UK UCITS management company with the risk management policy and with those arrangements, processes and techniques referred
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
Some of these tools, for example
the use of public statements to deliver messages to firms or consumers of financial services, do not involve
the FCA in direct oversight
of the business of firms. In
contrast, other tools do involve a direct relationship with firms.
The FCA also has powers to
act on its own initiative to impose or vary individual requirements on
a firm (see SUP 7) and to ban or impose requirements in relation to
specific financial promotions. The FCA may
also
The FCA uses
a variety of tools to monitor whether a firm,
once authorised, remains in compliance
with regulatory requirements. These tools include (but are not limited to):(1) desk-based reviews;(2) liaison with other agencies or
regulators;(3) meetings with management and other
representatives of a firm;(4) on-site inspections;(5) reviews and analysis of periodic
returns and notifications;(6) reviews of past business;(7) transaction monitoring;(8) use of auditors; and(9) use
The FCA also
uses a variety of tools to address specific risks identified in firms. These tools include:(1) making recommendations for preventative
or remedial action;(2) giving other individual guidance to a firm;(3) imposing individual requirements; and(4) varying a firm'spermission in another way.
5A firm must:(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FCA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
A firm should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of an unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness.
The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms under the regulatory system. This includes provisions which implement the Single Market Directives.5 They derive their authority from the appropriate regulator's rule-making powers as set out in the Act and reflect the statutory objectives.3
Principles 3 (Management and control), 4 (Financial prudence) and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the appropriate regulator) 11 (Relations with regulators) take into account the activities of members of a firm's group. This does not mean that, for example, inadequacy of a group member's risk management systems or resources will automatically lead to a firm contravening Principle 3 or 4. Rather, the potential impact of a group member's activities (and, for example, risk
As set out in PRIN 3.3 (Where?), Principles 1 (Integrity), 2 (Skill, care and diligence) and 3 (Management and control) apply to world-wide activities in a prudential context. Principle 5 (Market conduct) applies to world-wide activities which might have a negative effect on confidence in the UK financial system8. In considering whether to take regulatory action under these Principles in relation to activities carried on outside the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator will
Breaching a Principle makes a firm liable to disciplinary sanctions. In determining whether a Principle has been breached it is necessary to look to the standard of conduct required by the Principle in question. Under each of the Principles the onus will be on the appropriate regulator to show that a firm has been at fault in some way. What constitutes "fault" varies between different Principles. Under Principle 1 (Integrity), for example, the appropriate regulator would need
The Principles are also relevant to the FCA's15 powers of information-gathering, to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission,15 and of investigation and intervention, and provide a basis on which the FCA15 may apply to a court for an injunction or restitution order or require a firm to make restitution. However, the Principles do not give rise to actions for damages by a private person (see PRIN 3.4.4 R).151515
When making a decision on an application
for registration under the RCB Regulations,
or in relation to material changes to the contractual terms of the regulated covered bond, or in relation to
a change of owner, or when
seeking to use direction, revocation or penalty powers, the RCB
Regulations require the FCA to give the subject of the intended
action a warning notice and
a decision notice. The recipient
of a warning notice has the
right to make representations to the decision
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
Decisions on applications for registration,
in relation to material changes to contractual terms of the regulated
covered bond, or in relation to a change of owner, or decisions
to issue a direction under the RCB Regulations or
to revoke an issuer's registration,
will be taken under executive procedures following
the process set out in DEPP 4.
(1) An issuer'slistedsecuritised derivatives must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedsecuritised derivatives to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FCA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
(1) If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FCA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
4If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities under LR 5.3.1 R and the FCA agrees to do so, the notification given by the FCA to the issuer will include the following information: (1) the date on which the suspension or cancellation took effect or will take effect;(2) details of the suspension or cancellation; and (3) in relation to requests for suspension, details of the issuer's right to apply for the suspension of its listed securities to
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
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(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
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(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
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(b) |
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which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
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(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
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1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility complies with those requirements of Chapter I of Title II of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to a market operator operating such a facility, the FCA2 will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements.2
The FCA1 will consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
where it believes that such action will be a more effective and persuasive
deterrent than the imposition of a financial penalty alone. This is likely
to be the case where the FCA1 considers that direct and visible action in relation to a particular breach is necessary. Examples of circumstances
where the FCA1 may
consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction include:111(1) where the FCA1
The FCA1 expects usually to suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities directly linked to the breach.
However, in certain circumstances the FCA1 may also suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities that are not directly linked to the breach,
for example, where an authorised person's relevant
business area no longer exists or has been restructured.11