Related provisions for CONC 7.17.10

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COLL 11.4.5GRP
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
ICOBS 7.2.10GRP
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
COBS 15.5.4GRP
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FCA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
BIPRU 3.3.5GRP
The list of eligible ECAIs is published on the appropriate regulator website. When the appropriate regulator recognises an ECAI as an eligible ECAI, it publishes that decision by amending the list of eligible ECAIs on the appropriate regulator website to include the name of the eligible ECAI. When the appropriate regulator determines that the recognition of an ECAI should be revoked, it publishes that decision by deleting the name of the ECAI from the list on the appropriate regulator
BIPRU 1.1.3GRP
In the main BIPRU only applies to a collective portfolio management investment firm7 in respect of designated investment business (excluding managing an AIF and managing a UCITS).7 However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.77
PR 2.2.9RRP
If the final terms of the offer are not included in eitherthe base prospectus or a supplementary prospectus:(1) the final terms must be provided to investors and filed with the FCA, and made available to the public, in accordance with PR 3.2.4 R to PR 3.2.6 R the PD Regulation as soon as practicable after each offer is made and, if possible, before the offer begins;(2) the base prospectus must disclose the criteria and/or the conditions in accordance with which the above elements
CONC 3.6.5RRP
(1) Where a financial promotion concerns a facility for which security is or may be required, the promotion must:(a) state that security is or may be required; and(b) specify the nature of the security.[Note: regulation 7(1) of CCAR 2004](2) Where, in the case of a financial promotion, the security comprises or may comprise a mortgage or charge on the customer's home:(a) except where (c) applies, the financial promotion must contain a warning in the form:“YOUR HOME MAY BE REPOSSESSED
SUP 12.9.3GRP
The firm should also satisfy itself that:(1) the appointed representative is making and retaining records in accordance with the relevant record keeping rules in the Handbook, if these records are not maintained by the firm;(2) the appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) is making and retaining records sufficient to disclose with reasonable accuracy the financial position of the business it carries on in its capacity as the firm's appointed
CONC 8.9.4RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps, where it has agreed to accept sales leads from a lead generator for debt counselling or debt adjusting or providing credit information services, to ensure that the lead generator: (1) where it does not have a Part 4A permission for debt counselling and is not an appointed representative of a firm with such permission, does not carry on debt counselling in obtaining or passing on sales leads to the firm;(2) where it carries on debt counselling,
CONC 11.1.6RRP
(1) The firm must disclose to a consumer in good time before or, if that is not possible, immediately after the consumer is bound by a contract to which the right to cancel applies under CONC 11.1.1 R, and in a durable medium, the existence of the right to cancel, its duration and the conditions for exercising it including information on the amount which the consumer may be required to pay, the consequences of not exercising it and practical instructions for exercising it, indicating
MCOB 2.3.8GRP
(1) Quantification of any material inducement offered by the mortgage lender or reversion provider2 supports the disclosure requirements elsewhere in MCOB. Further guidance on the disclosure of any inducement in cash terms is provided in MCOB 5.6.118 G for regulated mortgage contracts other than lifetime mortgages, MCOB 9.4.124 G for lifetime mortgages and MCOB 9.4.173 G for home reversion plans.2(1A) Quantification of any material inducement offered by a SRB agreement provider
COLL 8.5.14GRP
An affected person is not liable to account to another affected person or to the unitholders of the scheme for any profits or benefits it makes or receives that are made or derived from or in connection with:(1) dealings in the units of a scheme; or(2) any transaction in scheme property; or(3) the supply of services to the scheme;where disclosure of the non-accountability has been made in the prospectus of the scheme.
REC 3.15.2ARRP
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a regulated market in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: Article 41(1), paragraph 2 of MiFID]3
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
MCOB 8.5A.5RRP
For the purposes of MCOB 8.5A.2 R: (1) an equity release transaction will not be suitable for a customer unless the equity release transaction is appropriate to the needs and circumstances of the customer; (2) a firm must base its determination of whether an equity release transaction is appropriate to a customer's needs and circumstances on the facts disclosed by the customer and other relevant facts about the customer of which the firm is or should reasonably be aware;(3) no
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
CONC 2.8.2RRP
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted rapidly and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344