Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)
Category of firm |
Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society5, a non-directive firm45or (in the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission3 54 |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(1A) |
(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3 9 |
|
(2) |
||
(2A) 3 |
4 | all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
5(2B) |
(In the case of an FCA-authorised person) a firm with only a limited permission |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R , and SUP 11.4.4 R |
(3) |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73 |
|
Note |
In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21 944994494 |
Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)
This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41 |
(1) Category of firm |
(2) Sections applicable to the firm |
(3) Sections applicable to its auditor |
|
(1) |
Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23192323 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
(2) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 172223 |
||
(3) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
||
(4) |
Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23 |
||
(5) |
Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A) 21 |
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(5A) |
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27(5B) [FCA] |
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(6) |
Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7 |
||
(7) |
Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17 239281723 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
9(7A) |
Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23281722 |
||
25(7AA) |
A firm that has exercised an opt in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R |
||
9(7B) |
Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23 13 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
13(7C) |
UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320 2023 |
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17(7D) |
Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320 2023 |
||
(8) |
Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
||
(9)8 |
Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 10 |
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(10)8 |
Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17 |
||
(11)8 |
Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
||
(12)8 |
Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 1010 |
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Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R. |
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Note 2 [deleted]23 171723 |
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Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18 |
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Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. |
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23 | |||
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58. |
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17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited. 20202222 |
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Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8 |
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Note (5) = In row (6):7 |
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(a)7 |
SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7 |
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(b)7 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567 |
||
23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28 |
Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.
Valuation and pricing |
||
1 |
The valuation of scheme property |
|
(1) |
Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review. |
|
(2) |
For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1 1 |
|
3(2A) |
Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5
|
|
[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive] |
||
(2B) |
Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7 |
|
[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7 |
||
(3) |
Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation). |
|
(4) |
For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2 |
|
(5) |
Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:
|
|
(6) |
The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:
|
|
(7) |
In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:
|
|
4(7A) |
Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable. |
|
(8) |
The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly. |
|
(9) |
Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing. |
|
2 |
The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices. |
|
(2) |
The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:
|
|
(3) |
In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price. |
|
(4) |
Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained. |
|
(5) |
Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult. |
|
(6) |
Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply. |
|
3 |
The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls |
|
(1) |
This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5. 5 |
|
(2) |
A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them. |
|
(3) |
A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation. |
|
(4) |
A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory. |
|
(5) |
Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor. |
|
(6) |
A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved. |
|
4 |
The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable. |
|
(2) |
In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only. |
|
(3) |
A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager. |
|
(4) |
In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period. |
|
5 |
The rectification of pricing breaches |
|
(1) |
COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance. |
|
(2) |
A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:
|
|
(3) |
In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately. |
|
(4) |
If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate). |
|
(5) |
The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid. |
|
(6) |
If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units. |
|
(7) |
It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price. |
|
(8) |
In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid. |