Related provisions for PERG 8.14.34

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CASS 6.2.11ERP
(1) 6Taking reasonable steps in CASS 6.2.10R (4) includes following this course of conduct:(a) determining, as far as reasonably possible, the correct contact details for the relevant client;(b) writing to the client at the last known address either by post or by electronic mail to inform it: (i) of the name of the firm with which the client first deposited the safe custody asset in question; (ii) of the firm's intention to pay the safe custody asset to charity under CASS 6.2.10
CASS 6.2.14RRP
6Where a firm divests itself of a client'ssafe custody asset under CASS 6.2.10 R, it must comply with either (1)(a) or (1)(b) and, in either case, (2).(1) (a) The firm must unconditionally undertake to pay to the client concerned a sum equal to the value of the safe custody asset at the time it was liquidated or paid away in the event of the client seeking to claim the safe custody asset in future.(b) The firm must ensure that an unconditional undertaking in the terms set out
CASS 6.2.15RRP
(1) 6If a firm pays away a client's unclaimed safe custody assets to charity or liquidates a client's unclaimed safe custody assets and pays the proceeds to charity under CASS 6.2.10 R it must make and retain, or where the firm already has such records, retain:(a) records of all safe custody assets divested under CASS 6.2.10 R (including details of the value of each asset at that time and the identity of the client to whom the asset was allocated); (b) all relevant documentation
CASS 7A.2.4RRP
If a primary pooling event occurs, then4:(1) in respect of either the general pool or a sub-pool, 4client money held in a client bank account or a client transaction account1 of the firm relating to that pool is treated as a single notional pool of client money for the beneficiaries of that pool,4 except for client money held in a client transaction account at an authorised central counterparty3 or a clearing member which is, in either case, held as part of a 4regulated clearing
CASS 7A.2.4AGRP
(1) 1Under EMIR, where a firm that is a clearing member4 of an authorised central counterparty defaults, the authorised central counterparty may:4(a) portclient positions where possible; and(b) after the completion of the default management process:(i) return any balance due directly to those clients for whom the positions are held, if they are known to the authorised central counterparty; or(ii) remit any balance to the firm for the account of its clients if the clients are
CASS 7A.2.5RRP
(-1) 1Each client'sclient equity balance must be reduced by:(a) any amount paid by:3(i) an authorised central counterparty to a clearing member other than the firm in connection with a porting arrangement in accordance with CASS 7.2.15R (6) in respect of that client; (ii) a clearing member to another clearing member or firm (other than the firm) in connection with a transfer in accordance CASS 7.2.15R (8);(b) any amount paid by:3(i) an authorised central counterparty directly
CASS 7.19.1GRP
(1) 1Under CASS 7.7.2 R (2), a firm acts as trustee for all client money received or held by it for the benefit of the clients for whom that client money is held, according to their respective interests in it.(2) A firm that is also a clearing member of an authorised central counterparty may wish to segregate client money specifically for the benefit of a group of clients who have chosen to clear positions through a net margined omnibus client account maintained by the firm with
CASS 5.1.4ARRP
(1) 3A firm will, subject to (3), be deemed to comply with CASS 5.3 to CASS 5.6 if it receives or holds client money and it either:2(a) in relation to a service charge, complies with the requirement to segregate such money in accordance with section 42 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1987 ("the 1987 Act"); or2(b) in relation to money which is clients' money for the purpose of the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors' Rules of Conduct ("RICS rules") in force as at 14 January
REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.
REC 3.23.1RRP
Where a UK RIE2 decides to put a member into default, it must immediately give notice of that event, and give the following information to the FCA2, at the same time as that decision is communicated to that member or to any other member (or group or class of them) of that body: 22(1) the name of the member and (where relevant) the class of membership; (2) the reasons for that decision; and(3) the names of any other exchange,1clearing house or auction platform 1on which, to the
PRIN 1.2.6GRP
If the person with or for whom the firm is carrying on an activity is acting through an agent, the ability of the firm to treat the agent as its client under COBS 2.4.3 R3 (Agent as client) will not be available. For example, if a general insurer is effecting a general insurance contract through a general insurance broker who is acting as agent for a disclosed policyholder, the policyholder will be a client of the firm and the firm must comply with the Principles accordingly.
SYSC 7.1.18RRP
(1) 13A CRR firm that is significant must establish a risk committee composed of members of the management body who do not perform any executive function in the firm. Members of the risk committee must have appropriate knowledge, skills and expertise to fully understand and monitor the risk strategy and the risk appetite of the firm.(2) The risk committee must advise the management body on the institution’s overall current and future risk appetite and assist the management body
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.