Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50
21 - 40 of 190 items.
Firms are reminded that SUP 15.6.4 R requires them to notify the appropriate regulator4 if information notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R3 or SUP 11.4.4 R was false, misleading, inaccurate, incomplete, or changes, in a material particular. This would include a firm becoming aware of information that it would have been required to provide under SUP 11.5.1 R if it had been aware of it.144
After submitting a section 178 notice2under SUP 11.4.2 R orSUP 11.4.2A R2 and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the appropriate regulator4 under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.1224
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State should be aware that it may be required by the laws, regulations and administrative provisions of the Host State regulator to maintain facilities in that State, including for making payments to unitholders, repurchasing or redeeming units and making available the information which is required to be provided in relation to the scheme.[Note: article 92 of the UCITS Directive]
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that investors within the territory of that Host State are provided with all the information and documents which it is required by the Handbook to provide to investors in the United Kingdom.(2) The information and documents referred to in (1) must be provided to investors in the way prescribed by the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of the Host State and in
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the appropriate regulator8 to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the appropriate regulator8 before applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission.8888
Discussions with the appropriate regulator8 are particularly relevant where the firm has to discharge obligations to its customers or policyholders before it can cease carrying on a regulated activity. This may be the case, for example, where the firm is an insurer, a bank a dormant account fund operator,4 or, as is often the case, holding client money or customer assets.8
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator8 to discuss its circumstances. Discussions will focus on8 the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel itsPart 4A permission and/or the need to impose a new requirement, vary any existing requirement or cancel such a requirement. Following these discussions the firm should usually make the relevant application, as appropria
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part 4A permission or for the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement before it applies for cancellation of Part 4A permission8 to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months
Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:
Prospectus approved in another EEA State |
||||
87H |
(1) |
A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3 |
||
(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
|||
(b) |
a copy of the prospectus as approved; and |
|||
(c) |
if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus. |
|||
(2) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus - |
|||
(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and |
|||
(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate. |
|||
(3) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
|||
3(3A) |
The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section. |
|||
3(3B) |
The list referred to in subsection (3A) must - |
|||
(a) |
be kept up-to-date; |
|||
(b) |
retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and |
|||
(c) |
include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of - |
|||
(i) |
the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate; |
|||
(ii) |
the issuer; or |
|||
(iii) |
the regulated market where admission to trading is sought. |
|||
(4) |
"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus. |
|||
Provision of information to host Member State |
|||
87I |
(1) |
The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with – |
|
(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
||
(b) |
a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and |
||
(c) |
a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2 |
||
(1A)2 |
If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to - |
||
(a) |
the person who made the request under this section; and |
||
(b) |
ESMA. |
||
(2) |
Only the following may make a request under this section – |
||
(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates; |
||
(b) |
a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom; |
||
(c) |
a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom. |
||
(3) |
A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus – |
||
(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and |
||
(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA]. |
||
(4) |
A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
||
(5) |
The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section – |
||
(a) |
if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or 2 |
||
(b) |
if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus. |
||
(6) |
“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus. |
||
(7) |
“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section. |
||
(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FCA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))
(1) |
The name of the firm; |
(2) |
the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers; |
(3) |
a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5 |
(4) |
any other information of which the appropriate regulator7 would reasonably expect notice.5 7 |
Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the groupcompanies to which the appropriate regulator's7 consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the appropriate regulator's7 requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The appropriate regulator7
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.75355
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for
Where theappropriate UK regulator3 grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the appropriate UK regulator3 is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator. 33
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R (3)(a) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 40 and 41 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.9R (1)(b) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 41 and 43 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
(1) An authorised fund manager or a UKUCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must employ an appropriate liquidity risk management process in order to ensure that each UCITS it manages is able to comply at any time with COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption) or the equivalent UCITS Home State measures implementing article 84(1) of the UCITS Directive.(2) Where appropriate, the authorised fund manager or UKUCITS management company must conduct stress tests to enable it to
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
(1) When the appropriate regulator11 receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:11(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home
(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.4.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative5.820
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, theCRD12 or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the CRD10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).88812208881012(2) (a) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
A firm is required to notify the appropriate regulator of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). The effective supervision threshold conditions provide that, if a firm has close links with another person, the matters which are relevant in determining whether a firm satisfies the condition of being capable of being effective supervised include:1111(1) the nature of the relationship between the firm and that person;1111(2) whether those links or that relationship are likely
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator11 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions11 and to the protection of consumers; and1111(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information
(1) 11111111557[deleted]7(2) [deleted]7111111117(3) [deleted]7(4) [deleted]7(5) 57[deleted]7(6) 7A firm must submit a report to the appropriate regulator annually by completing the Close Links Annual Report in SUP 16 Annex 36A which must be sent electronically to the appropriate regulator within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date6.
1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) or of an EEA regulator under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator or
of the EEA regulator2 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1)and SUP 13.7.6 G,15UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).151551515
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the ONA12 system.99112412(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G
The relevant regulator24 may require additional information, including professional advice, to supplement or support the report in SUP 6.4.9 G where it considers this appropriate. Examples of reports that may be requested by the relevant regulator24 include, but are not limited to those detailed in SUP 6.4.16 G.2424
A firm which is applying for cancellation ofPart 4A permission24 and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the appropriate regulator24 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.24 These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).2424
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the relevant regulator24 will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:24(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.2.15 R5 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty)24 and CASS 7.2.19 R5(Client money: allocated but unclaimed client
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator.7Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator without delay:222(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an approved person pursuant to section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The approved person's position and responsibilities. The FCA4 may take into
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FCA4 will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FCA4 or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FCA4 will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.444
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written agreement it has entered into with the depositary of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in articles 23 and 33 of the UCITS Directive; and(b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management