Related provisions for IFPRU 7.1.7
301 - 320 of 799 items.
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
The Society must, as soon as it is practical to do so, notify the appropriate regulator of its intention to make any amendment which may alter the meaning or effect of any byelaw, including:(1) any Lloyd's trust deed;(2) any standard form letter of credit prescribed by the Society from time to time; or(3) any standard form guarantee agreement prescribed by the Society from time to time.
The information provided to the appropriate regulator by the Society under INSPRU 8.2.25 R must include:(1) a statement of the purpose of any proposed amendment or new Lloyd's trust deed and the expected impact, if any, on policyholders, managing agents, members, and potential members; and(2) a description of the consultation undertaken under INSPRU 8.2.26 R including a summary of any significant responses to that consultation.
The FCA understands that in complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order, a firm is representing that it will not:(1) make use of the opt-out arrangements in CASS 7.1.7C G to CASS 7.1.7G G; or(2) conduct business to which the client money rules do not apply because of the exemption for CRD credit institutions and approved banks in CASS 7.1.8 R to CASS 7.1.11A R; or(3) enter into any arrangement relating to the transfer of full ownership of the client's money to
For firms with exemptive relief under the Part 30 exemption order, the CFTC has issued certain no-action letters which, on the FCA's understanding, would allow such firms to use an LME bond arrangement as an alternative to complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order. Under an LME bond arrangement, a firm may arrange for a binding letter of credit to be issued to cover the 'secured amount' (as defined by section 30.7 of the General Regulations under the US Commodity
A firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative (including an introducer appointed representative):(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any limitations or requirements on its own permission;(2) require the appointed representative to cooperate with the FCA as described in SUP 2.3.4 G (Information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative: cooperation by firms) and give access to its premises, as described in
Once every calendar year, a CASS debt management firm must notify the FCA, in writing, of the information in (1), (2) or (3), as applicable, and the information in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):(1) if it held client money in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later than the fifteenth business day of January; or (2) if it did not hold
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 11.2.3 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied, a CASS debt management firm that would otherwise be classified as a CASS small debt management firm under the limits provided for in CASS 11.2.3 R may elect to be treated as a CASS large debt management firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case: (a) the election is notified to the FCA in writing;(b) the notification in accordance with (a) is made at least one week before
A firm's 'CASS debt management firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (1) or CASS 11.2.4 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 11.2.7 R and provided the conditions in CASS 11.2.7 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification made under
This chapter applies principally to any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is thereby subject to FCA regulation. As such it will be of relevance among others to:(1) insurance brokers;(2) insurance advisers;(3) insurance undertakings; and(4) other persons involved in the sale and administration of contracts of insurance, even where these activities are secondary to their main business.
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
A proprietary trader undertakes activities with the firm'smoney and has the ability to commit the firm. By virtue of this role, all proprietary traders have potential to be able to exercise significant influence on the firm for the purposes of the definition of significant-influence function. Therefore, it is the FCA's expectation that all firms will assess all their proprietary traders to ascertain the ones for whom approval is required.
The question may arise whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing the significant management function under SUP 10A.9.9 R and should, therefore, be an FCA-approved person. This is especially true where the firm operates matrix management. The fact there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FCA, may have a bearing on this. It is a factor to take into account when assessing
Reports of transactions made in accordance with Articles 25 (3) and (5) of MiFID shall contain the information specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU which is relevant to the type of financial instrument in question and which the FCA declares is not already in its possession or is not available to it by other means. |
[Note: article 13(1) of the MiFID Regulation.] |
11A firm must keep at the disposal of the FCA, for at least five years, the relevant
data relating to all transactions in financial instruments which it has carried
out, whether on own account or on behalf of a client.
In the case of transactions carried
out on behalf of clients, the
records shall contain all the information and details of the identity of the client, and the information required under
the money laundering directive.[Note:
article 25(2) of MiFID]
11The
requirement to keep information at the disposal of the FCA means that a firm should
maintain that information in such a form that it can readily be gathered and
transmitted to the FCA upon request. Where more than
one firm has given effect to
a transaction, each firm should be considered to have carried
out the transaction for the
purposes of SUP 17.4.3 R and should keep the records, even where only
one firm makes a transaction report as contemplated in this
Chapter.
An example of a good or service 3relating to the execution of trades that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is post-trade analytics. These would not meet the evidential criteria for a good or service to be directly related to the execution of trades under COBS 11.6.4E (1).33
Examples of goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) include price feeds or historical price data that have not been analysed or manipulated in order to present the investment manager with meaningful conclusions. These would not meet the evidential criteria for a good or service to amount to the provision of substantive research under COBS 11.6.5E
Examples of goods or services that relate to the execution of trades or the provision of research that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of either evidential provisions COBS 11.6.4E (1) or COBS 11.6.5E (1)3 include:3(1) services relating to the valuation or performance measurement of portfolios;(2) computer hardware; (3) connectivity services such as electronic networks and dedicated telephone lines; (4) seminar fees;(4A) 3corporate access services;3(5) subscriptions
The reference to substantive 3research in the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is not confined to investment research as defined in the Glossary. Substantive research can potentially be or include investment research, but this is not part of the criteria under COBS 11.6.5 E.3 In addition, any goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FCA regards as not acceptable under COBS 11.6.7 G or COBS 11.6.8 G3 should be viewed as not meeting the
In assessing the adequacy of prior and periodic disclosures made by an investment manager under this section, the FCA will have regard to the extent to which the investment manager adopts disclosure standards developed by industry associations such as the Investment Management Association, the National Association of Pension Funds and the Association for Financial Markets in Europe.
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity;(b) [deleted]88(c) an insurer;(d) a BIPRU firm;(e) a non-BIPRU firm that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group; and(f) a firm subject to the rules in IPRU(INV) Chapter 14.(2) a UCITS firm, but only if
SYSC 12.1.8R (1) deals with the systems and controls that a firm should have in respect of the exposure it has to the rest of the group. On the other hand, the purpose of SYSC 12.1.8R (2) and the rules in this section that amplify it is to require groups to have adequate systems and controls. However a group is not a single legal entity on which obligations can be imposed. Therefore the obligations have to be placed on individual firms. The purpose of imposing the obligations
In
determining whether or not the conduct of an approved
person performing a significant
influence function under APER 4.6.5 E, APER 4.6.6 E and APER 4.6.8 E complies with Statement
of Principle 6,4 the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the appropriate
regulator,4 are to be taken into account:4(1) the
competence, knowledge or seniority of the delegate; and (2) the
past performance and record of the delegate.
An approved person performing a significant influence function will not
always manage the business on a day-to-day basis himself. The extent to which
he does so will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, scale
and complexity of the business and his position within it. The larger and
more complex the business, the greater the need for clear and effective delegation
and reporting lines. The appropriate
regulator4 will look to the approved person performing a significant-influence
function4
(1) An approved person performing a significant influence function may delegate
the investigation, resolution or management of an issue or authority for dealing
with a part of the business to individuals who report to him or to others.(2) The approved person performing a significant influence function should have
reasonable grounds for believing that the delegate has the competence, knowledge,
skill and time to deal with the issue. For instance, if the compliance department
only
(1) 6A must be capable of being effectively supervised by the FCA having regard to all the circumstances including-(a) the nature (including the complexity) of the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(b) the complexity of any products that A provides or will provide in carrying on those activities;(c) the way in which A’s business is organised;(d) if A is a member of a group, whether membership of the group is likely to prevent the FCA’s effective supervision
(1) 6B must be capable of being effectively supervised by the FCA having regard to all the circumstances including-(a) the nature (including the complexity) of the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on;(b) the complexity of any products that B provides or will provide in carrying on those activities;(c) the way in which B’s business is organised;(d) if B is a member of a group, whether membership of the group is likely to prevent the FCA’s effective supervision
6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
CASS 11.3.4 R describes the FCA controlled function known as the CASS operational oversight function (CF10a) in relation to CASS large debt management firms, including not-for-profit debt advice bodies. As a consequence of CASS 11.3.4 R (in conjunction with SUP 10A.4.1 R and SUP 10A.7.10 R), in a CASS large debt management firm (including a not-for-profit debt advice body fitting into that category) the function described in CASS 11.3.4 R is required to be discharged by a director
A CASS large debt management firm must allocate to a director or senior manager the function of: (1) oversight of the operational effectiveness of that CASS debt management firm's systems and controls that are designed to achieve compliance with CASS 11; (2) reporting to the CASS debt management firm'sgoverning body in respect of that oversight; and(3) completing and submitting a CCR005 return to the FCA in accordance with SUP 16.12.29C R.
If, at the time a CASS debt management firm becomes a CASS large debt management firm in accordance with CASS 11.2.8 R, the firm is not able to comply with CASS 11.3.4 R because it has no director or senior manager who is an approved person in respect of the CASS operational oversight function, the firm must:(1) take the necessary steps to ensure that it complies with CASS 11.3.4 R as soon as practicable, which must at least include submitting an application for a candidate in
Where the FCA has modified LR 14.2.2 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% on the basis that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage, but the FCA considers that in practice the market for the shares is not operating properly, the FCA may revoke the modification in accordance with LR 1.2.1 R (4).
A company2 must forward to the FCA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:2(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
13The FCA performs part of its supervision work by reviewing and analysing information about firms' records of compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The type of report the FCA requires will vary, depending on the type of business a firm undertakes. This information helps the FCA to determine whether a firm is complying with the requirements applicable to its business, and what procedures it is operating to ensure its compliance.
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
A benchmark submitter who suspects that any person(1) is manipulating, or has manipulated, a specified benchmark;(2) is attempting, or has attempted, to manipulate a specified benchmark; or(3) is colluding, or has colluded, in the manipulation or attempted manipulation of a specified benchmark;must notify the FCA without delay.
(1) The FCA expects the report required under MAR 8.2.12 R to be issued annually, although the FCA may agree a longer period depending on the benchmark submitter's particular circumstances, including the nature and scale of its engagement in the specified benchmark and the internal framework for monitoring compliance with the requirements of this chapter.(2) A benchmark submitter which proposes to appoint an auditor to report to the FCA under MAR 8.2.12 R on a less frequent than
(1) 1A person who notifies the FCA of a desire to obtain interim permission in accordance with article 56 (Interim permission) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, a fee of :(a) where the person is a sole trader:(i) if the notification is made on or before 30 November 2013, £105; or(ii) £150; (b) in any other case:(i) if the notification is made on or before 30 November
(1) 2A local authority which notifies the FCA of a desire to obtain interim permission in accordance with article 56 (Interim permission) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, a fee of £350.(2) The fee required by (1) must be paid by debit card (Maestro/Visa only), credit card (Visa/Mastercard only), bankers draft, cheque, or other payable order.(3) The fee required