Related provisions for IFPRU 10.1.2
81 - 95 of 95 items.
Throughout CRD and the EU CRR there are various policies which have restricted application based on a firm's scope, nature, scale, internal organisation and complexity. These policies are provided in the following:(1) article 76 of CRD on the establishment of an independent risk committee;(2) article 88 of CRD on the establishment of an independent nominations committee;(3) article 91 of CRD on the limitations on the number of directorships an individual may hold;(4) article 95
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator9 immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers: 9(1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; (2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; (3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial
(1) Dealing on own account means (for the purpose of GENPRU and BIPRU) the service of dealing in any financial instruments for own account as referred to in point 3 of Section A of Annex I to MiFID, subject to (2) and (3).99(2) In accordance with article 5(2) of the Capital Adequacy Directive (Definition of dealing on own account), a CAD investment firm that executes investors' orders for financial instruments and holds such financial instruments for its own account does not for
1A firm operating an MTF must have:(1) transparentand non-discretionary rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading;[Note:Article 14(1) of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders;[Note: Article 14(1) of MiFID](3) transparent rules regarding the criteria for determining the financial instruments that can be traded under its systems;[Note: Subparagraph 1 of Article 14(2) of MiFID](4) transparent rules, based on objective criteria, governing access
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
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(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
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1The purpose of this section is to ensure that the appropriate regulator10 receives regular and comprehensive information about remuneration in a standard format to assist it to benchmark remuneration trends and practices and to collect remuneration information on high earners. It also takes account of the Capital Requirements (Amendment) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/917) together with the European Banking Authority's Guidelines to article 22(3) and (5) of the Banking Consolidation
(1) Cash obtained from borrowing, and borrowing which the authorised fund manager reasonably regards an eligible institution or an approved bank to be committed to provide, is not available for cover under COLL 5.3.3A R (Cover for investment in derivatives and forward transactions),3 except if (2) applies.3(2) Where, for the purposes of this section, the ICVC or the depositary4 for the account of the AUT or ACS4 on the instructions of the authorised fund manager4:44(a) borrows
As part of its SREP, the FCA will also consider whether a firm should hold a capital planning buffer and the amount and quality of such capital planning buffer. In making these assessments, the FCA will have regard to the nature, scale and complexity of a firm's business and of the major sources of risks relevant to such business as referred to in the general stress and scenario testing rule and SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing), as applicable. Accordingly, a firm'scapital planning
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an
(1) A transaction in a derivative must be within COLL 5.2.20 R (1) (Permitted transactions (derivatives and forwards)) and:(a) the underlying must be within COLL 5.6.4 R (5) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) to (i)2; and2(b) the exposure to the underlying must not exceed the limits in COLL 5.6.7 R (Spread: general),9COLL 5.6.8 R (Spread: government and public securities) and COLL 5.6.5 R (2).99(2) A transaction in an approved derivative must be effected on or
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
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