Related provisions for PERG 6.7.2

LR 9.8.4R16/05/2014

In addition to the requirements set out in DTR 4.1 a listed company1 must include in its annual financial report1, where applicable, the following:1(1) a statement of the amount of interest capitalised by the group during the period under review with an indication of the amount and treatment of any related tax relief;(2) any information required by LR 9.2.18 R (Publication of unaudited financial information);(3) [deleted]1313(4) details of any long-term incentive schemes as required

MCOB 9.5.4R01/04/2014

The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R(1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 9.4, with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, for a lifetime mortgage3 the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate) at the date the illustration

TC App 6.1.1G01/04/2013

1Introduction
1.	An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1 1
2.	Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.
3.	[deleted]1 1
Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies
4.	In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:
	(1)	the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and
	(2)	the rules and practices of the applicant.
5.	An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.
6.	When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:
	(1)	carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;
	(2)	ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;
	(3)	take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and
	(4)	request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.
7.	The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.
8.	The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.
9.	Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.
Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession
10.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.
Carrying out effective verification services
11.	If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.
12.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:
	(1)	verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1
	(2)	verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and
	(3)	verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.
13.	The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.
14.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will withdraw its statement of professional standing if the accredited body is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER. In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.
Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness
15.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.
16.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.
17.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER.
Ongoing cooperation with the FCA
18.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.
19.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.
20.	The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.
Withdrawal of accreditation
21.	If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.

CONC 7.12.3G01/04/2014

(1) CONC 1.2.2 R requires a firm to ensure its employees and agents comply with CONC and that it takes reasonable steps to ensure other persons who act on its behalf do so. This rule would apply where a debt collector acts as agent or on behalf of a lender.(2) Situations where it may be justified for a firm to refuse to deal with a person acting on behalf of a customer may include, for example, refusing to deal with that person where the firm is able to show that the person has

PR App 1.1.101/01/2014

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7 EU CRR.7 7 7
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
6ESMA recommendations	the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission’s Regulation on Prospectuses No 809/2004 published by the European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA/2011/81).
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

REC 2.10.3G01/04/2013

In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FCA,3 or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial

MCOB 10.4.3G01/04/2013

(1) MCOB 10.4.2 R means, for example, that the following charges must be included within the total charge for credit:(a) any fee payable to a mortgage intermediary for arranging the contract (see MCOB 10.4.2 R(2)); and(b) any higher lending charge.(2) The FCA takes the view that charges required to be included within the total charge for credit should not be excluded on the basis of these charges being refundable in certain circumstances. (3) The FCA also takes the view that the

SUP 11.5.10G01/04/2013

When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing

COLL 8.2.6R01/04/2014

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1	Description of the authorised fund
	Information detailing:
	(1)	the name of the authorised fund;
	(2)	that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and
	(3)	in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.
3Property Authorised Investment Funds
1A	For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:
	(1)	it is a property authorised investment fund;
	(2)	no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and
	(3)	in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:
		(a)	necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and
		(b)	in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.
2	Constitution
	The following statements:
	(1)	the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);
	(2)	if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;
	(3)	charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;
	(4)	for an ICVC:
		(a)	what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and
		(b)	the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5 6
	5(4A)	for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6
	6(4B)	for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;
	6(4C)	for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;
	(5)	for an AUT:
		(a)	the trust deed:
			(i)	is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;
			(ii)	is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and
			(iii)	authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;
		(b)	subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):
			(i)	the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and
			(ii)	the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);
		(c)	a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and
		(d)	payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6 6
	(6)6	for an ACS:
		(a)	the contractual scheme deed:
			(i)	is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;
			(ii)	is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;
			(iii)	authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and
			(iv)	states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person 7:
				(A)	who 7is a:
					(i)	professional ACS investor;
					(ii)	large ACS investor; or
					(iii)	person who already holds units in the scheme; and
				(B)	to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R;7 7
			(v)	states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);
			(vi)	states that for a co-ownership scheme:
				(A)	the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);
				(B)	the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and
				(C)	the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;
			(vii)	states:
				(A)	whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:
					(i)	prohibited; or
					(ii)	allowed;
				(B)	where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCA rules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person : 7
					(i)	who 7is a:
						(1)	professional ACS investor; or
						(2)	large ACS investor; or
						(3)	person who already holds units in the scheme; and
					(ii)	to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R; and7 7
				(viii)	states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;
		(b)	subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:
			(i)	the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and
			(ii)	the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and
		(c)	a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;
		(d)	a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;
		(e)	the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;
		(f)	the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and
		(g)	the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:
			(i)	acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and
			(ii)	enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.
3	Investment objectives
	A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.
4	Units in the scheme
	A statement of:
	(1)	the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and
	(2)	the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).
5	Limitation on issue of and redemption of units
	Details as to:
	(1)	the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and
	(2)	the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.
6	Income and distribution
	Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.
3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules
6A	A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.
7	Base currency
	A statement of the base currency of the scheme.
8	Meetings
	Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.
9	Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary
	Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8 8
10	Termination and suspension
	Details of:
	(1)	the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and
	(2)	the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.
110A	Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1
	If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1
11	Other relevant matters
	Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8 8

ICOBS 2.1.4G01/04/2013

In practice, private individuals may act in a number of capacities. The following table sets out a number of examples of how an individual acting in certain capacities should, in the FCA's view, be categorised.

Customer classification examples
Capacity	Classification
Personal representatives, including executors, unless they are acting in a professional capacity, for example, a solicitor acting as executor.	Consumer
Private individuals acting in personal or other family circumstances, for example, as trustee of a family trust.	Consumer
Trustee of a trust such as a housing or NHS trust.	Commercial customer
Member of the governing body of a club or other unincorporated association such as a trade body and a student union.	Commercial customer
Pension trustee.	Commercial customer
Person taking out a policy covering property bought under a buy-to-let mortgage.	Commercial customer
Partner in a partnership when taking out insurance for purposes related to his profession.	Commercial customer

Related provisions for PERG 6.7.2

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