Related provisions for LR 11.1.1B
461 - 480 of 799 items.
25Nothing in this appendix relieves firms of the obligation to consider the particular facts and circumstances of each complaint and to consider whether the assessment of loss and compensation should, in the light of those facts and circumstances, be carried out on a different basis. If, however, the facts and circumstances make it appropriate to do so, the FCA's expectation is that firms will apply the approach and standards set out in this appendix, and where they do not, the
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person (unless he has only a limited permission)15, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act unless he has only a limited permission. A person15 cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
4It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediary and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.6
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
Situations where this exclusion might apply, in the FCA's view, are set out below:(1) Advice by solicitors: the provision of legal services may involve a solicitor advising his client on the legal effects and consequences of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract. To the extent that this may involve advice on the merits of entering into the contract it is likely to be a necessary part of the legal advice. But it would not be necessary for the solicitor to go on
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
The FCA has made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorisedfirms to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an unregulated collective investment scheme in certain specified circumstances. These circumstances are set out in COBS 4.12.4 R3 To date, the Treasury has not made an order exempting single property schemes under section 239.23
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set
A firm must arrange for orderly records to
be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services
and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the appropriate
regulator or any other
relevant competent authority under MiFID or the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance
with the requirements under the regulatory
system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with
respect to clients.[Note:
article
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
The purpose of this section is to give directions to the electronic money issuers referred to in SUP 16.1.1B D under regulation 49 (Reporting requirements) of the Electronic Money Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their issuance of electronic money and provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations that they must provide to the FCA6; and 6(2) the time at which
An electronic money issuer that is not a credit institution must submit to the FCA:66(1) the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; and(2) the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; (b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c) by the due date specified in column (5) of that table; and (d) by electronic
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:
(1) |
The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground – |
|
(a) |
that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest; |
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(b) |
that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or |
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(c) |
that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
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A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific information must:(1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.
(1) The FCA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under sections1 256 or 261W1 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ACS1, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FCA receives
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
In many cases it will be clear whether or not a publication or service benefits from the exclusion. A publication or service may provide reports on such a wide range of matters that it is not possible to say that it has any purpose other than to provide coverage of a wide range of matters. Alternatively, it may be clear that the principal purpose of a publication or service is something other than those specified in the article 54 exclusion. Examples of cases where, in the FCA's
It is only where there are grounds to think that there is a significant doubt as to the principal purpose of a publication or service that the question of whether or not to apply to the FCA for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order is expected to arise. For example, this may happen where a publication or service has several significant purposes and one of them is a disqualifying purpose referred to in the exclusion in article 54. It may on occasion be
12The FSCS must allocate any compensation costs levy:(1) first, to the relevant classes in proportion to the amount of compensation costs arising from, or expected to arise from, claims in respect of the different activities for which firms in those classes have permission up to the levy limit of each relevant class. The FCA provider contribution classes are not relevant classes for this purpose; and(2) thereafter, where the levy limit has been reached (whether as a result of
12The FSCS must calculate each participant firm's share of a compensation costs levy (subject to FEES 6.3.22 R (Adjustments to calculation of levy shares)) by:(1) identifying each of the relevant classes to which each participant firm belongs, using the statement of business most recently supplied under FEES 6.5.13 R (1);(2) identifying the compensation costs falling within FEES 6.5.1 R allocated, in accordance with FEES 6.5.2 R, to the classes identified in (1);(3) calculating,
The FCA may modify LR 14.2.2 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of shares of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. For that purpose, the FCA may take into account shares of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in states that are not EEA States.1[Note: Article 48 CARD]
The FCA will not admit shares of a company incorporated in a non-EEA State that are not listed either in its country of incorporation or in the country in which a majority of its shares are held, unless the FCA is satisfied that the absence of the listing is not due to the need to protect investors. [Note: Article 51 CARD]
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. |
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(2) |
In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from - |
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(a) |
the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE]; |
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(b) |
rules relating to transactions on the market; |
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(c) |
its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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(d) |
conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and |
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(e) |
the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]. |
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(3) |
Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only - |
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(a) |
an investment firm, |
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(b) |
a credit institution, or |
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(c) |
a person who - |
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(i) |
is fit and proper, |
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(ii) |
has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence, |
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(iii) |
where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and |
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(iv) |
has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d). |
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(4) |
Rules under this paragraph must enable - |
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(a) |
an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or |
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(b) |
a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive, |
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by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm. |
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(5) |
The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities. 3 |
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(6) |
This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4. |
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In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FCA3 may have regard to whether: 3(1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to
1The disclosure rules apply as follows:(1) DTR 1 and DTR 2 apply to an issuer whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom or for which a request for admission to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom has been made;(2) DTR 3 applies to an issuer that is incorporated in the United Kingdom:(a) whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or(b) for whose financial instruments a request
Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure rules apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32. [intentionally blank]3Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FCA website.33