Related provisions for CASS 5.5.27

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SYSC 4.1.8GRP
The matters dealt with in a business continuity policy should include:(1) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(2) the recovery priorities for the firm's operations; (3) communication arrangements for internal and external concerned parties (including the appropriate regulator, clients and the press);(4) escalation and invocation plans that outline the processes for implementing the business continuity
SUP 17.1.7GRP
(1) 1The movement, reallocation or transfer of financial instruments within the accounts of one legal entity will be reportable where the movement, reallocation or transfer is as a result of an agreement to transfer rights in a financial instrument to which this chapter applies between clients of the firm or between the firm (or a member of its group) and a client, and where the movement, reallocation or transfer involves a transaction within the meaning of Article 5 of the MiFID
REC 2A.4.3GRP
The provisions of the auction regulation referred to in REC 2A.4.1 G are directly applicable to an RAP and require it to, in summary:(1) only grant admission to bid to applicants that comply with the conditions set out in article 19 of the auction regulation, including the prerequisite that the applicants are eligible to bid in accordance with article 18 of the auction regulation;(2) require an applicant for admission to bid to ensure that its clients, and the clients of its clients,
COBS 9.3.1GRP
(1) A transaction may be unsuitable for a client because of the risks of the designated investments involved, the type of transaction, the characteristics of the order or the frequency of the trading.(2) In the case of managing investments, a transaction might also be unsuitable if it would result in an unsuitable portfolio. [Note: recital 57 to the MiFID implementing Directive]
CASS 10.1.2GRP
The purpose of the CASS resolution pack is to ensure that a firm maintains and is able to retrieve information that would, in the event of its insolvency, assist an insolvency practitioner in achieving a timely return of client money and safe custody assets held by the firm to that firm'sclients.
PERG 2.4.2GRP
Even with a cross-border element a person may still be carrying on an activity 'in the United Kingdom'. For example, a person who is situated in the United Kingdom and who is safeguarding and administering investments will be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even though his client may be overseas.
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
SYSC 9.1.1RRP
A firm must arrange for orderly records to be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the appropriate regulator or any other relevant competent authority under MiFID or the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with respect to clients.[Note: article
SUP 17.2.2GRP
1The FCA will treat a firm as acting in accordance with SUP 17.2.1 R in circumstances where the firm enters into a transaction with another person in the course of providing a service of portfolio management on behalf of one or more clients, provided it:(1) enters into the transaction in the exercise of a discretion conferred on it by an investment mandate or does so having specifically recommended the transaction to its client;(2) has reasonable grounds to be satisfied that the
PERG 5.11.4GRP
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G on 14 January 2005 have the following effects.(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles
COBS 4.6.9RRP
(1) 1A firm that communicates to a client a projection for a packaged product which is not a financial instrument2must ensure that the projection complies with the projectionsrules in COBS 13.4, COBS 13.5 and COBS 13 Annex 2.2(2) A firm must not communicate a projection for a highly volatile product to a client unless the product is a financial instrument.
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an ROIE1 is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements11(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or, if relevant to an ROIE's satisfaction of the recognition requirements,1clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c)
COBS 18.1.6GRP
Where an applicable rule in COBS requires the doing of any thing in relation to a client, the trustee firm should consider who, in the context of that rule and having regard to the particular trust arrangement, is the most appropriate person to treat as its client. This might, for example, be the beneficiary, another trustee or the trust, depending on the particular circumstances.
COBS 4.5.7RRP
(1) If any information refers to a particular tax treatment, a firm must ensure that it prominently states that the tax treatment depends on the individual circumstances of each client and may be subject to change in future.[Note: article 27(7) of the MiFID implementing Directive](2) This rule applies in relation to MiFID or equivalent third country business or, otherwise, to a financial promotionfinancial promotion. However, it does not apply to a financial promotion to the extent
COBS 14.2.1RRP
1A firm that sells:(1) a packaged product to a retail client, must provide a key features document and a key features illustration2 to that client (unless the packaged product is a unit in a UCITS scheme,7simplified prospectus scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme which is a recognised scheme);77(2) a life policy that is not a reinsurance contract to a client, must provide the Consolidated Life Directive information to that client;(3) the variation of a life policy or personal pension
CASS 9.3.1RRP
(1) 1A firm must ensure that every prime brokerage agreement that includes its right to use safe custody assets for its own account includes a disclosure annex.(2) A firm must ensure that the disclosure annex sets out a summary of the key provisions within the prime brokerage agreement permitting the use of safe custody assets, including:(a) the contractual limit, if any, on the safe custody assets which a prime brokerage firm is permitted to use;(b) all related contractual definitions
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.