Related provisions for CREDS 9.1.1
Application of different sections of SUP 16 (excluding SUP 16.13, SUP 16.15, SUP 16.16 and SUP 16.17)6627
Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32
31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees |
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31(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1 |
On or before the application is made |
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30 |
As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4 |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27 |
On or before the application is made |
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4 |
On or before the date the notification is made |
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
£750 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17 76 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made26 |
26(ga) Any applicant for: (i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or (ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 7676 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules) |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches |
FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1 |
An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months |
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA |
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year |
FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2 |
On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1122957629576295762976297629 |
(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 52512555765765 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229 27629762976 |
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the appropriate regulator would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. |
(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. except in the cases specified in FEES 3 Annex 6A |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26 |
(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) , or (3B) 30 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 76 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application30 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 3017676130302311 |
On or before the date the application is made |
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”) |
As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
2(q) A super7transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1377 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22 713777227 |
50,000 |
On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3 33 |
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism. |
100,0006 6 |
Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 56 |
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly. |
Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA75 ; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.75 75The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA. 7575 |
On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. |
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA. 20 |
100,000 |
Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems. |
7(u) Any of the following: (i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism; (ii) a firm; (iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm; (iv) a market operator; or (v) an MTF operator; that satisfies the following conditions: (1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and (2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems. |
As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(v) A significant transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or (ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring. A significant transaction does not include a super transaction. 22 |
20,000 |
On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA. |
(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing. |
FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3 |
On or before the date the request is made. |
(x) (1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and (2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report. (ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table. (iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii). |
5,000 |
On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8 |
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations |
FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations |
(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations. |
50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12 |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
|
(zf) [deleted]76 76 |
76 | 91676 |
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body. |
2,500 |
On or before the date the application is made.18 |
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond. |
(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D. |
6,500 |
On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21 |
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1). |
An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. |
Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. |
Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. |
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33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider. |
1,500 |
On or before the application for approval is made. |
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act |
(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
32Part 2: Other fees |
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(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
(3) Due date |
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2). |
(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report. (ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19
Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)
This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41 |
(1) Category of firm |
(2) Sections applicable to the firm |
(3) Sections applicable to its auditor |
|
(1) |
Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23192323 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
(2) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 172223 |
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(3) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(4) |
Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23 |
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(5) |
Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A) 21 |
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(5A) |
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27(5B) [FCA] |
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(6) |
Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7 |
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(7) |
Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17 239281723 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
9(7A) |
Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23281722 |
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25(7AA) |
A firm that has exercised an opt in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R |
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9(7B) |
Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23 13 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
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13(7C) |
UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320 2023 |
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17(7D) |
Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320 2023 |
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(8) |
Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(9)8 |
Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 10 |
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(10)8 |
Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17 |
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(11)8 |
Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(12)8 |
Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 1010 |
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Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R. |
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Note 2 [deleted]23 171723 |
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Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18 |
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Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. |
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| 23 | |||
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58. |
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17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited. 20202222 |
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Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8 |
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Note (5) = In row (6):7 |
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(a)7 |
SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7 |
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(b)7 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567 |
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23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28 |
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Table of FEES 4 rules that correspond to FEES 7 rules
FEES 4 rules |
Corresponding FEES 7 rules |
Part 1 of 6FEES 4 Annex 2A6 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 11 |
1Part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
1Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
The table below sets out the format, reporting frequency and due date for submission in relation to regulatory returns that apply to electronic money issuers that are not credit institutions.
(1) Type of electronic money issuer |
(2) Return |
(3) Format |
(4) Reporting Frequency |
(5) Due date (Note 4) |
Balance sheet |
FSA059 |
Half yearly (Note 3) |
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Income statement |
FSA060 |
Half yearly (Note 3) |
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Capital requirements |
FSA061 |
Half yearly (Note 3) |
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Safeguarding |
FSA062 |
Half yearly (Note 3) |
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Supplementary information |
FSA063 |
Half yearly (Note 3) |
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No standard format |
Annual (Note 3) |
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Small electronic money institutions (Note 2) |
Return |
FSA064 |
Half yearly (note 5) |
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Total electronic money outstanding @ 31st December |
FSA065 |
Annual (Note 5) |
1 month |
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No standard format |
Annual (Note 5) |
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(a) the Post Office Limited (b) the Bank of England, the ECB and the national central banks of EEA States other than the United Kingdom (c) Government departments and local authorities (d) credit unions (e) municipal banks (f) the National Savings Bank |
No standard format |
Half yearly (Note 6) |
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Note 1 |
When submitting the completed returns required, the authorised electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30A to SUP 16 Annex 30E. |
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Note 2 |
When submitting the completed returns required, the small electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30F to SUP 16 Annex 30G. |
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Note 3 |
Where the authorised electronic money institution's reporting frequency is half yearly or annual, this field is calculated from the authorised electronic money institution'saccounting reference date. |
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Note 4 |
The due dates for returns are the last day of the periods given in column (5) of the table above following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in column (4) of the table above. |
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Note 5 |
The reporting frequency in relation to FSA065 is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. Otherwise, where the small electronic money institution's reporting frequency is half yearly or annual, this field is calculated from the small electronic money institution'saccounting reference date. |
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Note 6 |
This is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. |
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