Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
441 - 460 of 481 items.
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
A financial promotion made under article 55A must contain a statement in the following terms: “The [firm/company] is not authorised under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 but we are able in certain circumstances to offer a limited range of investment and consumer credit-related2 services to clients because we are members of [relevant designated professional body]. We can provide these investment and consumer credit-related2 services if they are an incidental part
(1) An approved person will only be in breach of
a Statement of Principle where
he is personally culpable. Personal culpability arises where an approved person's conduct was deliberate or
where the approved person's standard
of conduct was below that which would be reasonable in all the circumstances
(see DEPP 6.2.4 G (Action against
approved persons under section 66 of the Act2)).2(2) For
the avoidance of doubt, the Statements of
Principle do not extend the duties of approved
persons
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FCA3 may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. 3(2) In the FCA's3 view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.3(3) In the FCA's3 view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of a CASS debt management firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act where such a requirement is imposed in respect of all client money held by the firm.
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee2 in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act;2(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FCA, in accordance with
CASS 7.6.16 R
(Notification requirements), that it is unable correctly to identify
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
Professional firms with practices that involve acting for claimants in litigation against insurance undertakings are likely to be carrying on the regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Exempt professional firms whose practices contain a material element of such activity should consider whether they can continue to take advantage of the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation, having regard to the relevant
(1) APER 1.1A.2 P refers to the authorised person in relation to which a person is an approved person. (2) Under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) there are two kinds of approved person. (3) Section 59(1) of the Act describes the first. It covers a person who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by an authorised person ("A"). In this case, APER 1.1A.2 P refers to A.(4) Section 59(2) of the Act describes the second. It covers
Paragraphs 23(8) and 27 of Schedule 1ZA and paragraphs 31(7) and 35 of Schedule 1ZB of the Act permit the FCA and PRA respectively to recover fees (including in respect of the FCA,11 fees relating to payment services,5 the issuance of electronic money8 and, where relevant, FOS levies and CFEB levies6), and section 213(6) permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FCAPRA and FSCS respectively, and the FCA , PRA and FSCS, as relevant, will
(1) This rule applies
if under the Act or under the
law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must
be approved and published for the securities;
or(b) the applicant is
permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for
the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must
have been approved by the FCA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA
State is the Home Member State for
the securities, the relevant
competent authority must have supplied the FCA with:(i)
(1) This paragraph applies to an undertaking that would be a third country BIPRU firm if it were authorised under the Act.(2) Except in exceptional circumstances, it is the appropriate regulator's policy that it will not give an overseas applicant a Part 4A permission unless the appropriate regulator is satisfied that the applicant will be subject to prudential regulation by its home state regulatory body that is broadly equivalent to that provided for in the Handbook and the
An applicant for the admission of securitised derivatives must either:(1) have permission under the Act to carry on its activities relating to securitised derivatives and be either a bank or a securities and futures firm;(2) if the applicant is an overseas company:(a) be regulated by an overseas regulator responsible for the regulation of banks, securities firms or futures firms and which has a lead regulation agreement for financial supervision with the FCA; and(b) be carrying
A notice of intention3 (other than one to establish a branch or provide services in another EEA state under the auction regulation)7 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services
(1) The total amount payable by a person subject to enforcement action may be made up of two elements: (i) disgorgement of the benefit received as a result of the breach; and (ii) a financial penalty reflecting the seriousness of the breach. These elements are incorporated in a five-step framework, which can be summarised as follows:(a) Step 1: the removal of any financial benefit derived directly from the breach;(b) Step 2: the determination of a figure which reflects the seriousness
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to