Related provisions for GENPRU 2.2.165
41 - 60 of 77 items.
Where a firm takes on responsibility for giving information to a customer or receiving information from a customer in accordance with provisions of the CCA (for example, supplying a copy of an executed regulated credit agreement under section 61A of the CCA) the firm should ensure it is familiar with the relevant statutory requirements and has adequate system and procedures in place to comply with the provision in question.
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
If the Part 4A permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.
(1) Certain requirements under MiFID are disapplied for:(a) eligible counterparty business;(b) transactions concluded under the rules governing a multilateral trading facility between its members or participants or between the multilateral trading facility and its members or participants in relation to the use of the multilateral trading facility;(c) transactions concluded on a regulated market between its members or participants.(2) Under PRIN 3.1.6 R, these disapplications may
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for the management of operational risks that can arise from employees. In doing so, a firm should have regard to:(1) its operational risk culture, and any variations in this or its human resource management practices, across its operations (including, for example, the extent to which the compliance culture is extended to in-house IT staff);(2) whether the way employees are remunerated exposes the firm to the
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
(1) 1Under EMIR, where a firm that is a clearing memberof an authorised central counterparty defaults, the authorised central counterparty may:(a) portclient positions where possible; and(b) after the completion of the default management process:(i) return any balance due directly to those clients for whom the positions are held, if they are known to the authorised central counterparty; or(ii) remit any balance to the firm for the account of its clients if the clients are not
Afirm (with the exception of a sole trader who does not employ any person who is required to be approved under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements)),2 when allocating functions internally, must ensure that senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function, are responsible for ensuring that the firm complies with its obligations under the regulatory system1. In particular, senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function
In discharging its obligations under this section, a firm should also consider, together with any other relevant matters:(1) once a
safe custody asset2
has been lodged by the firm with the third party, the third party's performance of its services to the firm;2(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example Financial Reporting and Auditing Group (FRAG) 21 report or
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
A firm may employ different approaches to different portfolios where the firm itself uses different approaches internally. A firm must, if it uses different approaches in accordance with the previous sentence, be able to demonstrate to the appropriate regulator that the choice is made consistently and is not determined by regulatory arbitrage considerations.[Note:BCD Annex VII Part 1 point 17]
(1) 4Under the standard approach, the amount of eligible financial resources is equal to six months of operating costs.(2) Under the standard approach, the FCA5 assumes liquid financial assets are needed to cover the costs that would be incurred during an orderly wind-down of the UK recognised body'sexempt activities, while continuing to satisfy all the recognition requirements and complying with any other obligations under the Act (including the obligations to pay periodic fees
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with a Part 4A permission7 can apply to the relevant regulator7 to vary that permission;77(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has a Part 4A permission,7 or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the relevant regulator7 to cancel that permission completely; 77(2A) how a firm with a Part 4A permission can apply to the relevant regulator to:7(a)
Operating processes and systems at separate geographic locations may alter a firm's operational risk profile (including by allowing alternative sites for the continuity of operations). A firm should understand the effect of any differences in processes and systems at each of its locations, particularly if they are in different countries, having regard to:(1) the business operating environment of each country (for example, the likelihood and impact of political disruptions or
To be eligible for the retail exposure treatment purchased receivables must comply with the minimum requirements set out in BIPRU 4.8.11 R - BIPRU 4.8.15 R and the following conditions:(1) the firm has purchased the receivables from unrelated, third party sellers, and its exposure to the obligor of the receivable does not include any exposures that are directly or indirectly originated by the firm itself;(2) the purchased receivables must be generated on an arm's-length basis