Related provisions for BIPRU 4.10.8

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DEPP 6.2.1GRP
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
DEPP 6.2.6GRP
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an approved person pursuant to section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The approved person's position and responsibilities. The FCA4 may take into
DEPP 6.2.19GRP
Some types of breach may potentially result not only in action by the FCA4, but also action by other domestic or overseas regulatory authorities or enforcement agencies.4
DEPP 6.2.20GRP
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FCA4 will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FCA4 or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FCA4 will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.444
COLL 12.2.6GRP
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
COLL 12.2.7GRP
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written agreement it has entered into with the depositary of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in articles 23 and 33 of the UCITS Directive; and(b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
COLL 12.2.8GRP
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme is advised that in accordance with the requirements of the Host State regulator it must establish appropriate procedures and arrangements to make information available at the request of the public or that regulator.
COLL 11.3.3GRP
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules implementing provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of that
COLL 11.3.10GRP
Where the FCA is informed in accordance with COLL 11.3.9 R that a feeder UCITS which is an EEA UCITS scheme has invested in units of the master UCITS, section 261A and section 261Z41 (Information for home state regulator) of the Act and regulation 29A (Information for home state regulator) of the OEIC Regulations require the FCA to inform the Home State regulator of the feeder UCITS immediately.[Note: article 66(1) second sentence of the UCITS Directive]
COLL 11.3.12RRP
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the competent authority of the feeder UCITS;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive
FEES 6.1.4GRP
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
FEES 6.1.4AGRP
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
FEES 6.1.8GRP
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9 up to their levy limits2 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the appropriate regulator , in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
SYSC 3.1.3GRP
Where the UK Corporate Governance Code4 is relevant to a firm, the appropriate regulator, in considering whether the firm's obligations under SYSC 3.1.1 R have been met, will give it due credit for following corresponding provisions in the code4 and related guidance.44
SYSC 3.1.10GRP
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification 7 requirement in TC7 to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Skills Partnership7, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.777
GEN 1.2.2ARRP
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
GEN 1.2.3GRP
GEN 1.2.2 R (2)(f)1 is confined to written approval because of the need for clarity as to the scope of any approval given by the appropriate regulator9. 9
SUP 13A.6.1GRP
2(1) SUP 13A Annex 1 summarises how the Handbook applies to incoming EEA firms.2(2) SUP 13A Annex 2 summarises the matters that are reserved to a firm'sHome State regulator.2
SUP 13A.6.4GRP
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of
SUP 14.6.2GRP
In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.7
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.7
SYSC 20.2.4GRP
(1) Business plan failure in the context of reverse stress testing should be understood as the point at which the market loses confidence in a firm and this results in the firm no longer being able to carry out its business activities. Examples of this would be the point at which all or a substantial portion of the firm's counterparties are unwilling to continue transacting with it or seek to terminate their contracts, or the point at which the firm's existing shareholders are
SYSC 20.2.7GRP
(1) The FSAappropriate regulator may request a firm to submit the design and results of its reverse stress tests and any subsequent updates as part of its ARROW risk assessment. (2) In the light of the results of a firm's reverse stress tests, the FSAappropriate regulator may require the firm to implement specific measures to prevent or mitigate the risk of business failure where that risk is not sufficiently mitigated by the measures adopted by the firm in accordance with SYSC
SUP 17.1.3GRP
1Article 32(7) of MiFID provides that the branch of a UK firm operating from an establishment in another EEA state must satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member State.
SUP 17.1.3AGRP
2In line with guidance from CESR, the FCA acknowledges that, from a practical point of view, it would be burdensome for branches of investment firms to be obliged to report their transactions to two competent authorities. Therefore, all transactions executed by branches may be reported to the competent authority of the Host State, if the investment firm elects to do so. In these cases transaction reports should follow the rules of the competent authority to which the report is
CONC 12.1.3RRP
The modules or parts of the modules of the appropriate regulator'sHandbook of rules and guidance or of a Regulatory Guide3 listed in the table in CONC 12.1.4 R to this chapter:(1) do not apply, to the extent set out in the table, to a person with an interim permission with respect to the carrying on of a credit-related regulated activity; or (2) are to apply to such a person with respect to the carrying on of a credit-related regulated activity with the modifications specified
CONC 12.1.4RRP

Table: Disapplied or modified modules or provisions of the Handbook

Module

Disapplication or modification

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Control sourcebook (SYSC)

[FCA]

SYSC 6.1.4C R (requirement of debt management firm or credit repair firm to appoint a compliance officer) does not apply to a firm with an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.8 R (responsibility for anti-money laundering systems and controls) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

SYSC 6.3.9 R (requirement to appoint a money laundering reporting officer) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission.

Fees manual (FEES)

[FCA]

The Fees manual does not apply in respect of the fee provided for in FEES 8.1.1R (1), except for the rules and guidance in FEES 2.3 and FEES 8.1.

3Threshold Conditions (COND)

Guidance applies with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 1).

Note 1

A firm is treated as having an interim permission on and after 1 April 2014 to carry on credit related regulated activity under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No.2) Order 2013 if it met the conditions set out in Chapter 4 of Part 8 of that Order. Section 55B(3) of the Act (satisfaction of threshold conditions) does not require the FCA or PRA to ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to the credit related regulated activities for which it has an interim permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible. The FCA or PRA can, however, exercise its power under section 55J of the Act (variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or under section 55L of the Act (in the case of the FCA) or section 55M of the Act (in the case of the PRA) (imposition of requirements by the regulator) in relation to a firm if, among other things, it appears to the FCA or PRA that the firm is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to the credit related regulated activities for which it has an interim permission for which the regulator is responsible. The guidance in COND should be read accordingly.

3Client Assets (CASS)

CASS does not apply :

(1)

to a firm with

only an interim permission; or

(2)

with respect to credit-related regulated activity for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission;

if the firm acts in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 3.42 and 3.43 of the Debt management (and credit repair services) guidance (OFT366rev) previously issued by the Office of Fair Trading, as they were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014.

3Supervision manual (SUP)

SUP 3 (Auditors), SUP 10A (FCA Approved persons) and SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) (see Note 2) do not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to a credit-related regulated activity for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission.

Note 2

A firm may not be a principal in relation to a regulated activity for which it has interim permission. A firm with interim permission may, however, be an appointed representative in relation to a regulated activity which it does not have interim permission to carry on (article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A permission and to impose, vary or cancel requirements) applies:

(1) with necessary modifications to reflect Chapter 4 of Part 8 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (see Note 3);

(2) with the modifications to

SUP 6.3.15D and SUP 6.4.5D set out in paragraph 1.2 of this Schedule.

Note 3

If a firm with interim permission applies to the appropriate regulator under section 55A of the Act for Part 4A permission to carry on a regulated activity or under section 55H or 55I of the Act to vary a Part 4A permission that the firm has otherwise than by virtue of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 by adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates, the application may be treated by the appropriate regulator as relating also to some or all of the regulated activities for which the firm has interim permission.

SUP 11 (Controllers and close links) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission (see Note 4).

Note 4

A firm is not to be regarded as an authorised person for the purposes of Part 12 of the Act (control over authorised person) if it has only an interim permission (see article 59 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013).

For a firm with only an interim permission

(1) SUP 15.5.1 R, SUP 15.5.2 G, SUP 15.5.4 R, SUP 15.5.5 R are modified so that the words "reasonable advance", "and the date on which the firm intends to implement the change of name" and "and the date of the change" are omitted; and

(2) SUP 15.7.1 R, SUP 15.7.4 R and SUP 15.7.5A R are modified so that a notification of a change in name, address or telephone number must be made using the online Consumer Credit Interim Permissions system available on the FCA's website.

(3) If in a notification to the FCA the firm is required to enter its FRN number it must include it interim permission number.

SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) does not apply to a firm with only an interim permission .

SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity as if the changes to SUP 16.11 and SUP 16.12 effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.

3Disputes Resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP)

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) do not apply to a person with only an interim permission.

DISP 1.10 (Complaints reporting rules) and DISP 1.10A (Complaints data publication rules) apply to a firm, which was an authorised person immediately before 1 April 2014, with an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission with respect to credit-related regulated activity as if the changes to DISP 1.10 and DISP 1.10A effected by the Consumer Credit (Consequential and Supplementary Amendments) Instrument 2014 had not been made.

3Consumer Credit sourcebook (CONC)

CONC 10 (Prudential requirements for debt management firms) does not apply:

(1) to a firm with only an interim permission; or

(2) with respect to credit-related regulated activity for which a firm has an interim permission that is treated as a variation of permission.

3Perimeter Guidance manual (PERG)

For a firm only with an interim permission, PERG 5.11.13 G is modified so that following the words "which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities" is added "(other than a regulated activity carried on by a firm only with an interim permission listed in article 59A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)(Amendment)(No.2) Order 2013 (SI 2013/1881) which is to be disregarded for this purpose)".

Article 59A enables a firm with only an interim permission which would be able to benefit from article 72B of the Regulated Activities Order, but for carrying on the new consumer credit regulated activities to continue to do so.
SUP 8.3.1GRP
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:1010(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.1010
SUP 8.3.7GRP
If the appropriate regulator10 decides not to give a waiver, it will give reasons for the decision.10
GEN 4.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
GEN 4.1.4RRP
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the appropriate regulator9) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm or the activities of an EEA UCITS management company,4 it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom. 9
SUP 15.5.7RRP
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator10 immediately if it becomes subject to or ceases to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). 10
SUP 15.5.9RRP
(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the appropriate regulator's website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which
APER 4.4.2AGRP
3For the purpose of this Statement of Principle, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with his accountable function or (in the case of an individual performing an accountable significant-influence function) in connection with the business for which he is responsible. This may include an exchange or an overseas r
APER 4.4.7ERP
Where the approved person is, or is one of the approved persons who is, responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 E)3, failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned3 of information of which he is aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned,3 whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 E.333
CASS 6.3.2GRP
In discharging its obligations under this section, a firm should also consider, together with any other relevant matters:(1) once a safe custody asset2 has been lodged by the firm with the third party, the third party's performance of its services to the firm;2(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example Financial Reporting and Auditing Group (FRAG) 21 report or
COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
COLL 7.2.1ARRP
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
SUP 13.2.1GRP
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the CRD2, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution which meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution. 2
SUP 13.2.4GRP
7In SUP 13 the "appropriate UK regulator" amounts to whichever of the FCA and the PRA is the competent authority for authorising the relevant UKfirm.