Related provisions for GENPRU 1.2.27

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MAR 8.3.13RRP
Notwithstanding any other financial resource requirements that may apply, a firm whose permitted activities include administering a specified benchmark must:(1) be able to meet its liabilities as they fall due; and(2) maintain, at all times, sufficient financial resources to be able to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark for a period of at least six months.
MAR 8.3.15GRP
The financial resources in respect of the requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2):(1) can includeliquid financial assets held on the balance sheet of the benchmark administrator, for example, cash and liquid financial instruments where the financial instruments have minimal market and credit risk and are capable of being liquidated with minimal adverse price effect, common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves and other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one
SUP 18.4.4GRP
For a transfer to another friendly society, if the conditions of 87(1) and 87(2) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 are met a report is required from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will meet the necessary margin of solvency2. Where the conditions of 87(1) and 87(3) are met the appropriate authority2 may require a report from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will have an excess of assets over liabilities.22
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'
SUP 18.4.37GRP
The appropriate authority2 will not decide whether to confirm the transfer or amalgamation at the hearing. A copy of its written decision, including its findings on the points made in representations, will be sent to the society(ies) and to those making representations. It will also be available to any other person on request and may be published.2
COLL 6.3.3ARRP
(1) 8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure the employment of the accounting policies and procedures referred to in SYSC 4.1.9 R (Accounting policies), so as to ensure the protection of unitholders.(2) Accounting for the scheme shall be carried out in such a way that all assets and liabilities of the scheme can be directly identified at all times.(3) If the scheme is an umbrella, separate accounts must be
COLL 6.3.3DRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must establish appropriate procedures to ensure the proper and accurate valuation of the assets and liabilities of each scheme it manages.[Note: article 8(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
BIPRU 3.4.48RRP
Where an exposure to an institution is in the form of minimum reserves required by the European Central Bank or by the central bank of an EEA State to be held by the firm, a firm may assign the risk weight that would be assigned to exposures to the central bank of the EEA State in question provided:(1) the reserves are held in accordance with Regulation (EC) No. 1745/2003 of the European Central Bank of 12 September 2003 or a subsequent replacement regulation or in accordance
BIPRU 3.4.121RRP
Where BIPRU 3.4.116 R does not apply, a firm may determine the risk weight for a CIU as set out in BIPRU 3.4.123 R to BIPRU 3.4.125 R, if the following eligibility criteria are met:(1) one of the following conditions is satisfied:(a) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision in an EEA State; or(b) the following conditions are satisfied:(i) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision that is equivalent to that laid down in EU5 law; and5(ii)
BIPRU 3.4.131RRP
Gold bullion held in own vaults or on an allocated basis to the extent backed by bullion liabilities must be assigned a 0% risk weight.[Note: BCD Annex VI Part 1 point 87]
BIPRU 5.3.3RRP
For on-balance sheet netting agreements - other than master netting agreements covering repurchase transactions, securities or commodities lending or borrowing transactions and/or other capital market-driven transactions – to be recognised for the purposes of BIPRU 5 the following conditions must be satisfied:(1) they must be legally effective and enforceable in all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of the insolvency or bankruptcy of a counterparty;(2) the firm must
FIT 2.3.2GRP
The appropriate regulator will not normally require the candidate to supply a statement of assets or liabilities. The fact that a person may be of limited financial means will not, in itself, affect his suitability to perform a controlled function.
SUP App 2.8.1RRP
If a firm decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the appropriate regulator including: (1) a scheme of operations; and (2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met in full as they fall due.
LR 10.1.4GRP
This chapter is intended to cover transactions that are outside the ordinary course of the listed company's business and may change a security holder's economic interest in the company's assets or liabilities (whether or not the change in the assets or liabilities is recognised on the company's balance sheet).
RCB 3.4.2DRP
1On the date of issuance, the issuer must send to the FCA:(1) the information in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 5 D (issuance form);(2) the information in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 3 D (asset and liability profile form); and(3) the final terms of the regulated covered bonds or equivalent issuance documents setting out the terms of the regulated covered bonds and signed copies of swap documents.
LR 10.4.2RRP
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible if, after the notification under LR 10.4.1 R, it becomes aware that:(a) there has been a significant change affecting any matter contained in that earlier notification; or(b) a significant new matter has arisen which would have been required to be mentioned in that earlier notification if it had arisen at the time of the preparation of that notification.(2) The supplementary notification must give details of the change
RCB 3.6.5DRP
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
BIPRU 1.2.7RRP
A CRD financial instrument means any contract that gives rise to both a financial asset of one party and a financial liability or equity instrument of another party.[Note: CAD Article 3(1)(e)]
BIPRU 1.2.9GRP
Generally, for the purpose of the definition of CRD financial instrument:(1) a financial asset means cash, the right to receive cash or another financial asset, the contractual right to exchange financial assets on potentially favourable terms or an equity instrument; and(2) a financial liability means the contractual obligation to deliver cash or another financial asset or to exchange financial liabilities under conditions that are potentially unfavourable.
BIPRU 12.3.4AGRP
2The strategies, policies, processes and systems referred to in BIPRU 12.3.4 R should include those which enable it to assess and maintain on an ongoing basis the amounts, types and distribution of liquidity resources that it considers adequate to cover:(1) the nature and level of the liquidity risk to which it is or might be exposed;(2) the risk that the firm cannot meet its liabilities as they fall due; and(3) in the case of an ILAS BIPRU firm, the risk that its liquidity resources
BIPRU 12.3.27RRP
A firm must develop methodologies for the identification, measurement, management and monitoring of funding positions. Those methodologies must include the current and projected material cash-flows in and arising from assets, liabilities, off-balance-sheet items, including contingent liabilities and the possible impact of reputational risk.22[Note: article 86(4) of the CRD]4
BIPRU 12.4.-1RRP
2A firm must consider alternative scenarios on liquidity positions and on risk mitigants and must review the assumptions underlying decisions concerning the funding position at least annually4. For these purposes, alternative scenarios must address, in particular, off-balance sheet items and other contingent liabilities, including those of securitisation special purpose entities(SSPEs) or other special purpose entities, as referred to in the EUCRR,4 in relation to which the firm
BIPRU 12.4.12GRP
A contingency funding plan sets out a firm's strategies for addressing liquidity shortfalls in emergency situations. Its aim should be to ensure that, in each of the stresses required by BIPRU 12.4.1R, it would still have sufficient liquidity resources to ensure that it can meet its liabilities as they fall due.
FEES 6.3.2GRP
The calculation of levies will also take into account previous levies, where funds raised in anticipation of meeting liabilities prove either more or less than the amount actually required.
FEES 6.3.14RRP
The FSCS must keep accounts which include:88(1) the funds held to the credit of each class; and228(2) the liabilities of that class.822
SUP 4.3.13RRP
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
SUP 4.3.14GRP
IPRU(INS) 9.4R and IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R require firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. INSPRU 1.34 requires realistic basis life firms to calculate the with-profits insurance component as part of their capital resources requirements. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the
REC 2.3.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has financial resources sufficient for the proper performance of its relevant functions, the FCA5 may have regard to:5(1) the operational and other risks to which the UK recognised body is exposed;(2) if the UK recognised body guarantees the performance of transactions in specified investments, the counterparty and market risks to which it is exposed in that capacity; 5(3) the amount and composition of the UK recognised body's capital;(4)
REC 2.3.12GRP
4For the purposes of REC 2.3, "net capital" should be in the form of equity. For this purpose, the FCA5 considers that common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves and other instruments classified as common equity tier one capital or additional tier one capital constitute equity. The FCA5 considers that, when calculating its net capital, a UK recognised body:55(1) should deduct holdings of its own securities, or those of any undertaking in the same group as the UK recognised
BIPRU 5.4.6RRP
(1) Units in CIUs may be recognised as eligible collateral if the following conditions are satisfied:(a) they have a daily public price quote;4(b) the CIU is limited to investing in instruments that are eligible for recognition under BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.5 R; and4(c) 4if the CIU is not limited to investing in instruments that are eligible for recognition under BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.5 R, units may be recognised with the value of the eligible assets as collateral under
BIPRU 5.4.8RRP
(1) In addition to the collateral set out in BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.7 R, where a firm uses the financial collateral comprehensive method, the following financial items may be recognised as eligible collateral:(a) equities or convertible bonds not included in a main index but traded on a recognised investment exchange or a designated investment exchange;(b) units in CIUs if the following conditions are met:(i) they have a daily public price quote; and(ii) the CIU is limited
BIPRU 11.5.2RRP
A firm must disclose the following information regarding the scope of application of the requirements of the Banking Consolidation Directive:(1) the name of the firm which is the subject of the disclosures;(2) an outline of the differences in the basis of consolidation for accounting and prudential purposes, with a brief description of the entities that are:(a) fully consolidated;(b) proportionally consolidated;(c) deducted from capital resources;(d) neither consolidated nor deducted;(3)