Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13
81 - 100 of 213 items.
(1) The Supervision manual (SUP) and Decision Procedure and Penalties
manual (DEPP) form the Regulatory
Processes part of the Handbook.(2) SUP sets
out the relationship between the FCA and authorised persons (referred to in the Handbook as firms).
As a general rule, SUP contains
material that is of continuing relevance after authorisation.(3) DEPP is
principally concerned with and sets out the FCA's decision
making procedures that involve the giving of statutory
notices, the FCA's
(1) Where rights of a lender under a regulated credit agreement are assigned to a firm, that firm must arrange for notice of the assignment to be given to the customer: (a) as soon as reasonably possible; or(b) if, after the assignment, the arrangements for servicing the credit under the agreement do not change as far as the customer is concerned, on or before the first occasion they do.[Note: section 82A of CCA] (2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to an agreement secured on land.(3)
The FCA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FCA's own initiative if the FCA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FCA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission24 in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.244 Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.2442424(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: 424(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial Conduct24Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or24; or2424(b) email cancellation.team@fca.org.uk24(3)
A firm which is applying for cancellation ofPart 4A permission24 and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the appropriate regulator24 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.24 These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).2424
6SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).
3The Society must immediately inform the appropriate regulator35 in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the appropriate regulator35 may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
5In the FCA's view the following factors are relevant in deciding whether a person (referred to in this paragraph as "an individual") is to be treated as carrying on his own business (in which case he may require authorisation unless an exemption or exclusion is available) or whether he is carrying on the business of the person for whom he works (in which case he will not require authorisation). In this paragraph, the person for whom the individual works is referred to as the
5Although the overall relationship between a home collected credit provider (the principal firm) and a person providing the services described in PERG 2.3.10 G (the individual) will need to be taken into account, meeting the following criteria is likely to mean that the individual is carrying on the business of the principal firm (as its agent) and not his own, meaning that the individual does not require authorisation or to be exempt:(1) the principal firm appoints the individual
(1) A person (other than a firm with only a limited permission)15must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i)
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G on 14 January 2005 have the following effects.(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:13121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, theCRD12 or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the CRD10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).88812208881012(2) (a) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
A firm must:(1) where it has responsibility for doing so, explain the key features of a regulated credit agreement to enable the customer to make an informed choice as required by CONC 4.2.5 R;[Note: paragraphs 4.27 to 4.30 of CBG and 2.2 of ILG](2) take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that a product it wishes to recommend to a customer is not unsuitable for the customer's needs and circumstances;[Note: paragraph 4.22 of CBG](3) advise a customer to read, and allow the customer
A firm must not:(1) make or cause to be made unsolicited calls to numbers entered on the register kept under regulation 25 or 26 of the Privacy and Electronic Communications (EC Directive) Regulations 2003 or to a customer who has notified the firm not to call the number being used to call; [Note: paragraph 3.9a of CBG](2) other than where:(a) the firm has obtained the contact details of a customer (C) in the course of the sale or negotiations for the sale of a product or service