Related provisions for COLL 5.2.23A
81 - 100 of 226 items.
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
For an originator, a sponsor, or for other firms which can calculate KIRB, the risk weighted exposure amounts calculated in respect of its positions in a securitisation may be limited to that which would produce an amount in respect of its credit risk capital requirement equal to the sum of 8% of the risk weighted exposure amount which would be produced if the securitised assets had not been securitised and were on the balance sheet of the firm plus the expected loss amounts of
(1) If:(a) a firm'sIRB permission allows it to use this treatment; and(b) the conditions in (2)(16) are satisfied,a firm may attribute to an unrated position in an asset backed commercial paper programme a derived rating as laid down in (3).(2) Positions in the commercial paper issued from the programme must be rated positions.(3) Under the ABCP internal assessment approach, the unrated position must be assigned by the firm to one of the rating grades described in (5). The position
Generally, for the purpose of the definition of CRD financial instrument:(1) a financial asset means cash, the right to receive cash or another financial asset, the contractual right to exchange financial assets on potentially favourable terms or an equity instrument; and(2) a financial liability means the contractual obligation to deliver cash or another financial asset or to exchange financial liabilities under conditions that are potentially unfavourable.
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger, must in conjunction with any other authorised fund manager or, as the case may be, management company of an EEA UCITS scheme that is a party to the proposed merger, draw up common draft terms of the proposed UCITS merger.(2) The common draft terms in (1) must set out the following particulars:(a) an identification of the type of UCITS merger and of the UCITS
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
(1) Details of any initial offer period must be provided in the relevant prospectus as described in COLL 4.2.5R (17)(h) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(2) It may be appropriate that the initial offer for a scheme operating limited issue or limited redemption arrangements, or intending to invest in illiquid assets, is longer than one for a scheme which does not have these features.
The depositary may take into or pay out of scheme property assets other than cash2 as payment for the issue or cancellation of units2 but only if:(1) it has taken reasonable care to ensure that the property concerned would not be likely to result in any material prejudice to the interests of unitholders; and(2) the instrument constituting the fund8 so provides.8
3Where a firm obtains credit protection for a number of reference entities underlying a credit derivative under the terms that the first default among the assets will trigger payment and that this credit event will terminate the contract, the firm may off-set specific risk for the reference entity to which the lowest specific risk percentage charge among the underlying reference entities applies according to the Table in BIPRU 7.2.44R.[Note:CAD Annex I point 8.B]
(1) A firm may take partial allowance when the value of two legs usually move in the opposite direction. This would be the case in the situations set out in (2) - (4).(2) The first situation referred to in (1) is that the position falls under BIPRU 7.11.16 R (2)(b) but there is an asset mismatch between the reference obligation and the underlying exposure. However, the positions meet the following requirements:(a) the reference obligation ranks pari passu with or is junior to
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
(1) 1The effect of COLL 7.4.5 R (1), if exercised by the manager and trustee, is that the manager must continue to prepare annual and half-yearly long reports and to make them available to unitholders in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R.(2) Where there are outstanding unrealised assets, keeping unitholders appropriately informed may, for example, be carried out by providing updates to unitholders at six-monthly or more frequent intervals.
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.(2) An authorised fund manager (excluding the EEA UCITS management company of a UCITS scheme) or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must regularly notify the following details
(1) The risk management process in COLL 6.12.3 R should take account of the investment objectives and policy of the scheme as stated in the most recent prospectus.(2) The depositary of a UCITS scheme should take reasonable care to review the appropriateness of the risk management process in line with its duties under COLL 6.6.4 R (General duties of the depositary) and COLL 6.6.14 R (Duties of the depositary and authorised fund manager: investment and borrowing powers), as appropriate.
(1) The scheme property of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF may, subject to the rules in this section, comprise any assets or investments to which it is dedicated.(2) For an ICVC, the scheme property may also include movable or immovable property that is necessary for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business of investing in those assets or investments.(3) The scheme property must be invested only in accordance with the relevant provisions in this section that are
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
A firm's run-off plan should include an explanation of its future investment strategy, including:(1) its strategy for matching the with-profits fund's liabilities with appropriate assets; and(2) any changes it expects to make to the with-profits fund's investment strategy as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund, including any changes to the proportions of different types of investments.
These tables belong to SUP App 2.15.8 G
Table 1 - forecast summary revenue account for the relevant with-profits fund |
|
(1) |
Premiums and claims (gross and net of reinsurance) analysed by major class of insurance business |
(2) |
Investment return |
(3) |
Expenses |
(4) |
Other charges and income |
(5) |
Taxation |
(6) |
Increase (decrease) in fund in financial year |
(7) |
Fund brought forward |
(8) |
Fund carried forward |
Table 2 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the relevant with-profits fund |
|
Assets analysed by type (excluding implicit items): |
|
(1) |
Equities |
(2) |
Land and buildings |
(3) |
Fixed interest investments |
(4) |
All other assets |
(5) |
Total assets (excluding implicit items) |
(6) |
Policyholder liabilities |
(7) |
Other liabilities |
(8) |
Total liabilities |
(9) |
Excess/(deficiency) of assets over liabilities before implicit items |
(10) |
Implicit items allocated to the with-profits fund |
(11) |
Long-term insurance capital requirement for the with-profits fund |
(12) |
|
(13) |
With-profits insurance capital component (for realistic basis life firms only) |
(14) |
Net excess/(deficiency) of assets in the with-profits fund |
Table 3 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the firm |
||
L1 |
||
L2 |
||
L3 |
L1+L2 |
|
L4 |
Total long-term insurance liabilities (excluding resilience capital requirement) |
|
L5 |
Total long-term insurance fund surplus |
L3-L4 |
L6 |
Shareholder fund assets |
|
L7 |
||
L8 |
||
L9 |
Excess of regulatory assets over long-term insurance capital requirement |
L5+L6+L7-L8 |
L10 |
For realistic basis life firms only. |
|
L11 |
||
L12 |
Net excess assets |
L9-L10-L11 |
L13 |
FTSE level at which the long-term insurance capital requirement would be breached |
|
Subject to BIPRU 13:(1) the exposure value of an asset item must be its balance-sheet value, subject to any value adjustments required by GENPRU 1.3; and(2) the exposure value of an off-balance sheet item listed in the table in BIPRU 3.7.2 R must be the percentage of its value set out in that table.[Note: BCD Article 78(1) part]
In relation to a core concentration risk group counterparty, an 2undertaking is included within the scope of consolidation of a group on a full basis if it is at the head of the group or if its assets and liabilities are taken into account in full as referred to in BIPRU 8.5.2 G (Basis of inclusion of undertakings in consolidation).22
In LR, a "related party transaction" means:(1) a transaction (other than a transaction in the ordinary course of business) between a listed company and a related party; or6(2) an arrangement (other than an arrangement in the ordinary course of business)6 pursuant to which a listed company and a related party each invests in, or provides finance to, another undertaking or asset; or(3) any other similar transaction or arrangement (other than a transaction in the ordinary course
(1) 13The management body of a CRR firm has overall responsibility for risk management. It must devote sufficient time to the consideration of risk issues.(2) The management body of a CRR firm must be actively involved in and ensure that adequate resources are allocated to the management of all material risks addressed in the rules implementing the CRD and in the EU CRR as well as in the valuation of assets, the use of external ratings and internal models related to those risks.
(1) 13A CRR firm that is significant must establish a risk committee composed of members of the management body who do not perform any executive function in the firm. Members of the risk committee must have appropriate knowledge, skills and expertise to fully understand and monitor the risk strategy and the risk appetite of the firm.(2) The risk committee must advise the management body on the institution’s overall current and future risk appetite and assist the management body
This paragraph provides further guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). In the appropriate regulator's view risk management has an essential role in informing risk decisions. However, an essential role does not necessarily mean an exclusive role or even always a primary role. There may be justifiable differences between the IRB approach and the firm's use of rating systems for its internal purposes as referred to in BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). For example, internal
Each exposure must be assigned to one of the following exposure classes:(1) claims or contingent claims on central governments and central banks;(2) claims or contingent claims on institutions;(3) claims or contingent claims on corporates;(4) retail claims or contingent retail claims;(5) equity claims;(6) securitisation positions; and(7) non credit-obligation assets.[Note: BCD Article 86(1)]
The risk weighted exposure amounts for credit risk for exposures belonging to one of the exposure classes referred to in (1) to (4) must, unless deducted from capital resources, be calculated in accordance with the following provisions:(1) for exposures in the sovereign, institution and corporate IRB exposure class, BIPRU 4.4.57 R to BIPRU 4.4.60 R, BIPRU 4.4.79 R, BIPRU 4.5.8 R to BIPRU 4.5.10 R (for specialised lending exposures), BIPRU 4.9.3 R and BIPRU 4.8.16 R to BIPRU 4.8.17
8A BIPRU firm must not include a capital instrument that is not a share at stage B1, B2 or C of the calculation in the capital resources table unless (in addition to satisfying all the other requirements in relation to tier one capital and hybrid capital) the firm's obligations under the instrument either:(1) do not constitute a liability (actual, contingent or prospective) under section 123(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986; or(2) do constitute such a liability but the terms of the
The effect of GENPRU 2.2.116 R and GENPRU 2.2.116A R8 is that if a potential tier one instrument does constitute a liability, this should only be the case when the firm is able to pay that liability but chooses not to do so. As tier one capital resources for an insurer8 should be undated, this will generally only be relevant on a solvent winding up of the firm. The holder should agree that the firm has no liability (including any contingent or prospective liability) to pay any
A debt security is a qualifying debt security if:(1) it qualifies for a credit quality step under the standardised approach to credit risk corresponding at least to investment grade; or(2) it has a PD which, because of the solvency of the issuer, is not higher than that of the debt securities referred to under (1) under the IRB approach; or(3) it is a debt security for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is unavailable and which meets the following conditions:(a) it