Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1
81 - 100 of 122 items.
(1) 1A regulated sale and rent back firm, must make the following disclosures to a customer; both orally and in writing; during the initial contact2:2(a) the service the firm is offering the customer, making it clear whether the firm will be acting as a SRB agreement provider, a SRB adviser or a SRB arranger and the particular regulated sale and rent back activities for which the firm has a Part 4A permission;(b) if the firm is acting as an intermediary, whether it deals with
7(1) A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted as an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself and therefore the starting point for an open-ended investment company that is incorporated
In relation to the activities of a firm for which it has a top-up permission, only the following FCA controlled functions apply:(1) the FCA required functions, other than the apportionment and oversight function and the compliance oversight function;(2) the significant management function, in so far as it relates to:(a) designated investment business other than dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order; or(b) processing confirmations,
The purpose of this guidance is to help persons consider whether they need authorisation or a variation of their Part 4A permission. Businesses new to regulation who act only as introducers of insurance business are directed in particular to PERG 5.6.2 G(article 25(1): arranging (bringing about) deals in investments) to PERG 5.6.9 G (Exclusion: Article 72C (Provision of information on an incidental basis)) and PERG 5.15.6 G (Flow chart: Introducers) to help consider whether they
PRIN applies to every firm, except that:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, the Principles apply only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU4 instrument to the firm's Home State regulator;4(2) for an incoming EEA firm which is a CRDcredit institution8 without a top-up permission, Principle 4 applies only in relation to the liquidity of a branch established in the United Kingdom;8(3) for an incoming EEA firm which has
7This section applies to:(1) an authorised professional firm in respect of its non-mainstream regulated activities unless the firm is also conducting other regulated activities and has appointed approved persons to perform the governing functions with equivalent responsibilities for the firm'snon-mainstream regulated activities and other regulated activities;(2) activities carried on by a firm whose principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities and
This chapter is relevant to an applicant for a Part 4A permission7, as if that applicant were a firm. Where the chapter refers to appropriate7supervisory contact, the applicant should read this as being the usual supervisory7contact at7 the appropriate regulator7. Further, this chapter is relevant to a person who is subject to rules made by the appropriate regulator7 and where the chapter refers to a firm, this includes that person5.177577
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.