Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50

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DEPP 6.5A.3GRP
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
DISP 1.4.2GRP
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a complaint under DISP 1.4.1R (2) include the following:59(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2) similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA , other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar complaints
COLL 4.8.3RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that has been approved by the FCA to operate as a feeder UCITS, including as a feeder UCITS of a different master UCITS, must provide the following information to its unitholders at least 30 calendar days before the date when the feeder UCITS is to start to invest in units of the master UCITS or, if it has already invested in them, the date when its investment will exceed the limit applicable under COLL 5.2.11R (9) (Spread: general):(a)
SUP 16.3.24GRP
SUP 2.3.12A G and SUP 2.3.12B G state that the appropriate regulator49 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The appropriate regulator's49 disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G or SUP 2.2.4A G49 (Confidentiality of information).4949
SUP 15.9.4RRP
A firm does not have to give notice to the appropriate regulator5 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:5(1) the appropriate regulator;5 or5(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article
PRIN 4.1.2GRP
Under PRIN 3.3.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to a UK MiFID investment firm is extended to the extent that another applicable rule which is relevant to an activity has a wider territorial scope. Under PRIN 3.1.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to an EEAMiFID investment firm is narrowed to the extent that responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm'sHome State regulator. These modifications are relevant
SUP 13.8.1AGRP
4The effect of SUP 13.8.1 R (1) is that a firm should submit any form, notice or application under SUP 13.8.1 R (1) in the following ways:(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, should submit it online at www.fca.org.uk16 using the ONA8system.16168(2) If the information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm should submit it in the way set out in SUP 13.5.3 R
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules or by the competent authority of another EEA State (provided the requirements of section 87H of the Act are met) – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus2; or2112(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by
SYSC 21.1.2GRP
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
SYSC 9.1.1RRP
A firm must arrange for orderly records to be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the appropriate regulator or any other relevant competent authority under MiFID or the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with respect to clients.[Note: article
DEPP 6.5B.3GRP
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
COLL 11.2.2RRP
(1) An application for approval of an investment in a master UCITS under section 283A of the Act must be accompanied by the following documents:(a) the instrument constituting the fund1 of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;1(b) the prospectus and the key investor information referred to in COLL 4.7.2 R (Key investor information) of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;(c) the master-feeder agreement or the internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R
SUP 5.4.6GRP
Where the2skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 the skilled person who will make the report or collect or update the relevant information.2 The Act requires that such2skilled person be nominated or approved by the appropriate regulator:22222(1) if the appropriate regulator2 decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the
CASS 11.11.32GRP
CASS debt management firms are also reminded of their obligation to notify the appropriate regulator of a significant breach of a rule under SUP 15.3.11 R.
SUP 10A.1.8GRP
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
COBS 2.4.4RRP
(1) This rule applies if a firm (F1), in the course of performing MiFID or equivalent third country business, receives an instruction to perform an investment or ancillary service on behalf of a client (C) through another firm (F2), if F2 is:(a) a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm; or(b) an investment firm that is:(i) a firm or authorised in another EEA State; and(ii) subject to equivalent relevant requirements.(2) F1 may rely upon:(a) any information about
DEPP 6.5C.3GRP
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the market abuse. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the market abuse:(a) the conduct of the individual in
DISP 3.3.4RRP
The Ombudsman may dismiss a complaint without considering its merits if he considers that:(1) the complainant has not suffered (or is unlikely to suffer) financial loss, material distress or material inconvenience; or(2) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious; or(3) the complaint clearly does not have any reasonable prospect of success; or(4) the respondent has already made an offer of compensation (or a goodwill payment) which is:(a) fair and reasonable in relation to the circumstances