Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1
41 - 60 of 266 items.
(1) This sourcebook, except for COLL 9 (Recognised schemes), applies to:(a) investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs);(b) ACDs, other directors and depositaries of ICVCs;3(c) managers and trustees of authorised unit trust schemes (AUTs); 34(cA) authorised fund managers, depositaries and nominated partners of authorised contractual schemes (ACSs); and4(d) to the extent indicated, UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes.3(2) COLL 9 applies to operators
3An EEA UCITS management company that is providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme from a branch in the United Kingdom, or under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that where it operates a UCITS scheme as its designated management company, it meets the Glossary definition of an "ACD" of an ICVC or a "manager" of an AUT or an authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS,4 which in either case is a UCITS scheme. Such firms should
3COLL 12 provides for the application of COLL in relation to the management company passport under the UCITS Directive. It explains how the passporting regime applies to both UK UCITS management companies and EEA UCITS management companies when providing collective portfolio management services on a cross-border basis. It also explains how the product passport (for UCITS) operates and how UCITS schemes may be marketed in other EEA States.
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules implementing provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of that
(1) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are UCITS schemes, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the law of a specified part of the United Kingdom applies to the agreement and that both parties agree to the exclusive jurisdiction of the courts of that part of the United Kingdom.(2) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are established in different EEA States, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the applicable law shall be either:(a) the law of the
(1) The authorised fund managers of a master UCITS and its feeder UCITS must take appropriate measures to co-ordinate the timing of their net asset value calculation and publication, including the publication of dealingprices, in order to avoid market timing in their units, preventing arbitrage opportunities.(2) Where either the master UCITS or feeder UCITS is an EEA UCITS scheme managed by an EEA UCITS management company, the authorised fund manager must co-ordinate with that
Where the FCA is informed in accordance with COLL 11.3.9 R that a feeder UCITS which is an EEA UCITS scheme has invested in units of the master UCITS, section 261A and section 261Z41 (Information for home state regulator) of the Act and regulation 29A (Information for home state regulator) of the OEIC Regulations require the FCA to inform the Home State regulator of the feeder UCITS immediately.[Note: article 66(1) second sentence of the UCITS Directive]
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer7 which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation8 and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
8The guidance in SUP 14.2 and SUP 14.3 covers the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. It is not, however, relevant to an EEA firm exercising an EEA right under the auction regulation, except for SUP 14.2.14 R which applies a separate notification requirement. Additionally, where an EEA firm is carrying on MiFID business bidding, that firm is exercising an EEA right under MiFID and so this chapter applies to that activity because it is MiFID business.
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(aa) 10authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the9CRD; or;494(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under MiFID; or1010(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. [Note: An EEA bank is required to comply with the requirements set out in the directly applicable regulations adopted under Articles 35, 36 and 39 CRD.] 95
(1) The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives) , of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution)or of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution) carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.77(2) The Compulsory Jurisdiction also covers complaints about:9779(a) collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management
This:519(1) includes incoming EEA firms, incoming EEAauthorised payment institutions6, incoming EEA authorised electronic money institutions820 and incoming Treaty firms; but(2) excludes complaints about business conducted in the United Kingdom on a services basis from an establishment outside the United Kingdom (other than complaints about collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management company in managing a UCITS scheme, and complaints about AIFM
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
16The activity of managing a UCITS is derived from the UCITS Directive. A person will manage a UCITS where they carry on collective portfolio management of a UCITS. A UCITS is a type of collective investment scheme which is authorised by a competent authority in an EEA State as meeting the requirements under the UCITS Directive.
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
(1) 1This rule applies to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listeddebt securities for whom the United Kingdom is its home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.(2) An issuer referred to in paragraph (1) that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules must comply with:(a) DTR 5.6.3 R (disclosure of changes in rights);(b) DTR 6.1.2 R (amendments to constitution);(c) DTR 6.1.3 R (2) (equality of treatment);(d)
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
An EEA
market operator has exempt person status
as respects any regulated activity which
is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007
to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility.
A person will only be an EEA firm or a Treaty firm if it has its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. EEA firms and Treaty firms are entitled to exercise both the right of establishment and the freedom to provide services under the Treaty. The difference, however, is that an EEA firm has a right to passport under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation2, whereas a Treaty firm carries on activities for which the right to carry on those activities
638This chapter contains rules and guidance on how respondents should deal promptly and fairly with complaints in respect of business carried on from establishments in the United Kingdom,11 by certain branches of firms in the EEA or by certain EEA firms carrying out activities in the United Kingdom under the freedom to provide cross border services.11 It is also relevant to those who may wish to make a complaint or refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
(1) Subject to DISP 1.1.5 R, this15 chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.15(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail
11For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of a UK UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) the consumer awareness rules, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule, as modified
For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of an EEA UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) where the services are provided from a branch in the United Kingdom, the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) this chapter, except the consumer awareness rules,
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
The effect of article 58(4) (b) of the UCITS Directive is that a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS which only has one or more feeder UCITS in another EEA State and therefore does not raise capital directly from the public in that EEA State will not thereby be exercising its right to market its units in that Host State in accordance with Chapter XI of the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 58(4)(b) of the UCITS Directive]
A firm will not be a member of a non-EEA sub-group unless it is1 also a member of a UK consolidation group. So the first step is to identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it isa CAD investment firm,4financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking4);44(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a BIPRU
The firm should then identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it is a CAD investment firm,4financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking);4(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group; or(b) a financial holding company in that UK consolidation
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the appropriate regulator contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country investment services undertaking4 in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention
An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation and only provides services in the United Kingdom5) 4or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G, SUP 13A.4.6 G,5 and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement which
1In this chapter:(1) references to an2 "issuer", in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, are to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom;2(2) references to a "non-UKissuer" are to an issuer whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market and whose Home State is the United Kingdom other than:(a) a public company within the meaning of section 4(2)7of the Companies Act 200674; and434433477(b) a company which is otherwise incorporated in,
(1) References to a market maker are to a market maker which:(a) (subject to (3) below) is authorised by its Home State under MiFID;(b) does not intervene in the management of the issuer concerned; and (c) does not exert any influence on the issuer to buy such shares or back the share price.[Note: articles 9(5) and 9(6) of the TD](2) A market maker relying upon the exemption for shares held by it in that capacity must notify the competent authority of the Home Member State of
(1) The following are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R except at the thresholds of 5% and 10% and above:(a) voting rights attaching to shares forming part of property belonging to another which that person lawfully manages under an agreement in, or evidenced in, writing;(b) voting rights attaching to shares which may be exercisable by a person in his capacity as the