Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B
21 - 40 of 147 items.
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA states in its Approach Documents that analysis of such firms' business models will form an important part of the PRA's supervisory approach. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not apply to the PRA's own assessment of the firms' business models.
The effect of section 59 of the Act and SUP 10 is that a credit union must apply to the appropriate regulator for the approval of one or more individuals to perform the functions which are known as controlled functions. Controlled functions fall within two groups: (1) The significant influence functions describe the roles performed by the governing body and senior managers of the firm who exert a significant influence over the regulated activities of the firm.(2) The customer
SUP 10.8: the systems and controls function. This is the function of acting as an employee with responsibility for reporting to the committee of management in relation to: (1) the credit union's financial affairs; or(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure; or (3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies.
SUP 10A.9 applies only to a firm which:(1) under SYSC 2.1.1 R or, SYSC 4.1.1 R, apportions a significant responsibility, within the description of the significant management function, to a senior manager of a significant business unit; or(2) undertakes proprietary trading; or(3) (in the case of an EEA firm) undertakes the activity of accepting deposits from banking customers and activities connected with this.
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions, under SUP 10A.9.1R (1), a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions. If so, the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes
6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.
6Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing effective supervision under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the effective supervision threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers and fee-paying electronic money issuers)107 calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR and Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2BR2727 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;(2) for each of the applicable27 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm
(1) Subject to FEES TP 8, if27 the firm's, designated professional body's, recognised investment exchange's, 12or regulated covered bondissuer's11periodic fee for the previous fee year27 was at least £50,000, it11 must pay the FCA:27272711(a) an amount equal to 50% of the FCA27 periodic fee payable for the previous fee year, by 30 April or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice, in the fee year27 to which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and 27(b) the balance
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as agent for the PRA)26 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and26(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA26 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as agent for the PRA)26 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding balance attributable
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If a person is to perform an FCA controlled function for a firm for which he already performs a PRA controlled function or FCA controlled function as an approved person but he is not at the same time ceasing to perform an FCA controlled function or PRA controlled function, a firm should use Form A. It is not mandatory to complete all parts of the form. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant-influence function for any firm or has not been subject to a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant-influence function
A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the FCA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using the PRA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10B of the PRA's Handbook.
A firm (other than the Society ) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1BR in relation to fees payable to the PRA)15 of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1B R in relation to fees payable to the PRA15 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA),14 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information the FCA or the PRA, as appropriate,14 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the appropriate regulator14
(1) Unless a firm cannot reasonably compare a maturity payment with a calculated asset share, it must:(a) set a target range for the maturity payments that it will make on:(i) all of its with-profits policies; or(ii) each group of its with-profits policies;(b) ensure that each target range:(i) is expressed as a percentage of unsmoothed asset share; and(ii) includes 100% of unsmoothed asset share; and(c) manage its with-profits business, and the business of each with-profit fund,
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
(1) 8Part VII of the Act prescribes certain statutory functions in relation to insurance business transfer schemes for both the PRA and the FCA. In accordance with the Act, the PRA and the FCA maintain a Memorandum of Understanding, which describes each regulator’s role in relation to the exercise of its functions under the Act relating to matters of common regulatory interest and how each regulator intends to ensure the coordinated exercise of such functions. Under the Memorandum
The initial documentary8 information on the scheme should be provided to the PRA, who will share it with the FCA, and8 should include its broad outline and its purpose. Each regulator may8 indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.88
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
8When assessing a proposed scheme under Part VII of the Act each regulator will, taking into account all relevant matters in each case, consider whether it should provide a report to the court. As it will lead the Part VII process for insurance business transfers, the PRA will usually provide such a report.
Applicable sections
(1) |
Category of firm |
(2) Applicable sections |
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(1) |
A long-term insurer, other than: |
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(a) |
a registered friendly society which is a non-directive friendly society; |
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(b) |
an incorporated friendly society that is a flat rate benefits business friendly society; and |
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(c) |
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(2) |
A friendly society, other than a friendly society within (1). |
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(3) 2 |
A Lloyd's managing agent, in respect of each syndicate it manages2 |
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(4) 2 |
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If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The appropriate regulator1 will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its appropriate1 supervisory contact.111
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the appropriate regulator1 if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.1
Once the appropriate regulator1 has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the appropriate regulator1 to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the appropriate regulator1wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the PRA6 to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the PRA6 to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. The principal duty of an actuary appointed to perform these functions3 is to advise the firm (see SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G3 for the rights and duties of such an actuary3).333333
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.
Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading
a client about the risks of
an investment;(3) misleading
a client about the charges or
surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading
a client about the likely performance
of investment products by providing
inappropriate projections of
future investment returns;(5) misleading
a client by informing him that
products require only a single
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or
the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.