Related provisions for IFPRU 4.12.4
21 - 40 of 275 items.
(1) A CASS debt management firm must, once every year and by the time it is required to make a notification in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R, determine whether it is a CASS large debt management firm or a CASS small debt management firm according to the amount of client money which it held during the previous year or, if it did not hold client money during the previous year, according to the amount of client money it projects to hold in the following year, in each case using the
Once every calendar year, a CASS debt management firm must notify the FCA, in writing, of the information in (1), (2) or (3), as applicable, and the information in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):(1) if it held client money in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later than the fifteenth business day of January; or (2) if it did not hold
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 11.2.3 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied, a CASS debt management firm that would otherwise be classified as a CASS small debt management firm under the limits provided for in CASS 11.2.3 R may elect to be treated as a CASS large debt management firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case: (a) the election is notified to the FCA in writing;(b) the notification in accordance with (a) is made at least one week before
A firm's 'CASS debt management firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (1) or CASS 11.2.4 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 11.2.7 R and provided the conditions in CASS 11.2.7 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification made under
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the requirements in regulation 4(4) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) the appropriate UK regulator12 has received a notice stating those details; and12(3) either:(a) the appropriate UK regulator12 has informed the firm that it may make the change;
Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the incoming EEA firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.3 G or SUP 14.2.8 G, inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions (regulation 4(6)).112
If the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, the firm is required by regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.2 G) or regulation 6(5) (see SUP 14.2.5 G (2)) to give a notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable.12
6The relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3) are that:(1) the EEA MiFID investment firm has given notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and(2) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the EEA MiFID investment firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.
6Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the EEA MiFID investment firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.11 G inform the EEA MiFID investment firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions. 12
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately in writing by e-mail, or hand-delivered letter, if requirements relating to the relevant regulated covered bond under the RCB Regulations or RCB are, or are likely to be, materially breached, or of any other matter which the FCA should be made aware of.
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant-influence function for any firm or has not been subject to a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant-influence function
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the appropriate UK regulator12 and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).112
A firm is required to provide the appropriate regulator9 with a wide range of information to enable the appropriate regulator9 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the appropriate regulator9 must be informed about, usually
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
1If the issuer or the owner (as the case may be) proposes to add or remove assets to or from the asset pool which change the level of over collateralisation by 5% or more, it must notify the FCA using the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 2 D (asset notification form) at least 5 business days prior to the proposed transfer, giving expected details of the size and composition of the transfer.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FCA2to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to an RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations1. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.2).121(2) The FCA2does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event, and:2(1) inform the FCA2of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;2(2) inform the FCA2of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for an RAP) RAPrecognition requirements1 following that delegation;2(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing a
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to rcb@fca.org.uk.
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R4 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under SUP 12.7.8 R (1), the firm must state
(1) 8Subject to (2A), a 9firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sONA10system.910(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) If the notification:9(a) relates to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment covers only credit-related regulated activity; or9(b) is of a change to
Except where the purchases will
consist of individual transactions made in accordance with the terms of issue
of the relevant securities,
where1 a listed
company intends to purchase any of its securities convertible
into its equity shares2 with
a premium listing2 it must:1(1) ensure that no dealings in the
relevant securities are carried
out by or on behalf of the company or
any member of its group until
the proposal has either been notified to a RIS or
abandoned; and(2) notify
Any purchases, early redemptions or cancellations
of a company's own securities convertible
into equity shares with a premium listing,2 by or on behalf of the company or any other member of its group must be notified to a RIS when an aggregate of 10% of the initial
amount of the relevant class of securities has been purchased, redeemed
or cancelled, and for each 5% in aggregate of the initial amount of that class acquired thereafter.2
The notification required by LR 12.5.2 R must be made as soon as possible and in any event no later than
7:30 a.m. on the business day following
the calendar day on which the relevant threshold is reached or exceeded. The
notification must state:(1) the amount of securities acquired,
redeemed or cancelled since the last notification; and(2) whether or not the securities are to be cancelled and the number
of that class of securities that remain outstanding.
(1) 3Except as set out in (3), a participant firm which does not conduct business that could give rise to a protected claim by an eligible claimant and has no reasonable likelihood of doing so is exempt from a specific costs levy, or a compensation costs levy, or both, provided that:(a) it has notified the FSCS in writing that those conditions apply; and(b) the conditions in fact continue to apply.(2) The exemption takes effect from the date on which the notice was received by
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the appropriate regulator will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The appropriate regulator will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The appropriate regulator will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date
Consistent with Principle 11 of the appropriate regulator'sPrinciplesfor Businesses (Relations with regulators), if a firm has not accepted individual liquidity guidance given by the appropriate regulator it should, nevertheless, notify the appropriate regulator as soon as it becomes aware of either of the events identified in BIPRU 12.9.14R (2)(a) or (b).
Although BIPRU 12.9.25 R requires notification and submission in the way prescribed in that rule, the appropriate regulator expects that a firm would also bring to the attention of its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator the fact that it had made such a notification or submission.
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the appropriate regulator9 in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:9(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgments, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the appropriate regulator9 would reasonably expect notice.9
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA and PRA99 on their9 own initiative);9(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the appropriate regulator):99(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the appropriate regulator9 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the appropriate regulator9 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:99(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or