Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
321 - 340 of 793 items.
This section has rules requiring a firm to identify and assess risks to its ability to meet its liabilities as they fall due, how it intends to deal with those risks, and the amount and nature of financial resources that the firm considers necessary. IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessment) provides that a firm should document that assessment. The FCA will review that assessment as part of its own assessment of the adequacy of a firm's capital under its supervisory review
This section has rules requiring a firm to carry out appropriate stress tests and scenario analyses for the risks it has previously identified and to establish the amount of financial resources and internal capital needed in each of the circumstances and events considered in that analyses. The FCA will consider, as part of its SREP, whether the firm should hold a capital planning buffer and the amount and quality of that buffer. The capital planning buffer is an amount separate,
APER 1.1A.7 G gives examples of the effect of APER 1.1A.1 P and APER 1.1A.2 P. The first column says whether the example involves an FCA-approved person and the second column says whether the example involves a PRA-approved person. So for example if there is a "Yes" in both columns that means that the example concerns a person who has been approved both by the FCA and by the PRA. The third column explains what functions APER covers in the scenario set out in the first two columns.
Table: Examples of what activities APER covers
FCA approved |
PRA approved |
Coverage of APER |
FCA-authorised person |
||
(1) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Not applicable |
Applies to the FCAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
Not applicable |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (1). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.2 G). |
|
PRA-authorised person |
||
(3) Yes, in relation to firm A |
No |
The answer is the same as for scenario (1). |
(4) No |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
(5) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to FCAcontrolled function and PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (5). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.21G). |
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The FCA22, (for FCA and PRA22periodic fees, FOS and FSCS levies and CFEB levies), expects11 to issue invoices at least 30 days before the date on which the relevant amounts fall due. Accordingly it will generally be the case that a person will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable.226723117232
Paragraphs 23(8) and 27 of Schedule 1ZA and paragraphs 31(7) and 35 of Schedule 1ZB of the Act permit the FCA and PRA respectively to recover fees (including in respect of the FCA,11 fees relating to payment services,5 the issuance of electronic money8 and, where relevant, FOS levies and CFEB levies6), and section 213(6) permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FCAPRA and FSCS respectively, and the FCA , PRA and FSCS, as relevant, will
In addition, the appropriate regulator may be entitled to take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of fees,6FOS levies and CFEB levies. The appropriate regulator6 may also take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of FOS case fees or 723 a723 share of the FSCS levy, after reference of the matter to the6appropriate regulator by the6FSCS. What action (if any) that is taken by the appropriate regulator will be decided upon in the light of the particular
The FSCS must allocate a compensation costs levy or specific costs levy, which has been allocated to the retail pool (under FEES 6.5.2-A R(2)):(1) to classes whose retail pool levy limit has not been reached as at the date of the levy;(2) in proportion to the relative sizes of the retail pool levy limits of the classes in (1); and(3) in accordance with the table in FEES 6 Annex 5.[Note: The retail pool levy limits for classes other than FCA provider contribution classes are the
(1) An allocation in FEES 6.5A.1 R to an FCA provider contribution class other than the home finance providers and administrators' contribution class may not be of an amount that, if it were added to any compensation costs levies or specific costs levies which have previously been imposed on the PRA funding class which corresponds to that FCA provider contribution class (as set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R) the combined figure would be greater than the levy limit of the corresponding
In relation to a specific costs levy or compensation costs levy allocated to an FCA provider contribution class in the retail pool, FEES 6.4.7A R (3) and FEES 6.5.6A R (3), respectively, are replaced by the following: "calculating, in relation to each relevant class, the participant firm's most recent regulatory costs arising from its membership of the corresponding activity group (as listed in FEES 4 Annex 1A R) set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R, as a proportion of the total most recent
The corresponding PRA funding classes and corresponding activity groups referred to in FEES 6.5A.2 R and FEES 6.5A.6 R respectively are as follows:
FCA provider contribution class |
Corresponding PRA funding class |
Corresponding activity group |
Deposit acceptor's contribution class |
Deposits |
A.1: Deposit acceptors |
Insurers - life contribution class |
Life and pensions provision |
A.4: Insurers - life |
Insurers - general contribution class |
General insurance provision |
A.3: Insurers - general |
Home finance providers and administrators' contribution class |
None |
A.2: Home finance providers and administrators |
The FCA5 expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain
types of firm and expects that
routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course
of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where
appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However,
where the FCA deems it appropriate,
it will exercise its own-initiative powers:55(1) in
circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to
be subject to a formal requirement,
breach
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative
powers in certain situations,5 including
the following:55(1) If
the FCA5 determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements,
the FCA5may
seek to use its own-initiative
powers.555(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately
addressed by existing requirements,
Pursuant
to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act,
within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which
include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where
appropriate, 5requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers
that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with
immediate effect.5535555
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation),2section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes) or section 261C of the Act (Applications for authorisation of contractual schemes)2.2(2) COLLG 3 (The FCA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FCA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations)
An application for an authorisation order in respect of an authorised fund must be:(1) in writing in the manner directed and contain the information required in the application form available from the FCA;(2) addressed for the attention of a member of FCA staff responsible for collective investment scheme authorisation matters; and(3) delivered to the FCA'saddress by one of the following methods:(a) posting; or(b) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt;
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS or2ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the appropriate regulator for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
In relation to adopting a reasonable approach to the time over which the payment shortfall or sale shortfall should be repaid,1the FCA takes the view that the determination of a reasonable repayment period will depend upon the individual circumstances. In appropriate cases this will mean that repayments are arranged over the remaining term. 11
Firms that propose to outsource aspects of customer relationships (including collection of debts or any other sums due1) should note that and SYSC 8,2 a firm cannot contract out its regulatory obligations and1 the FCA will continue to hold them responsible for the way in which this work is carried on.11
The FCA will not grant an investment firm consolidation waiver unless:(1) the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group meets the conditions for being a CAD Article 22 group;(2) the FCA is satisfied that each BIPRU firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group will be able to meet its capital requirements using the calculation of capital resources in GENPRU 2 Annex 6R (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision);
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
Although an investment firm consolidation waiver switches off most of this chapter, a firm should still carry out the capital adequacy calculations in BIPRU 8.3 to BIPRU 8.8 as if those parts of this chapter still applied to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and report these to the FCA. It should also still monitor large exposure risk on a consolidated basis.
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules (including3 its settlement arrangements), the FCA3 may have regard to:33(1) the UK recognised body's ability to:(a) monitor and oversee the use of its facilities;(b) assess its members' compliance with its rules (and settlement arrangements, where appropriate);(c) assess the significance of any non-compliance;(d) take appropriate disciplinary action against
In assessing whether the procedures made by a UK recognised body to investigate complaints about the users of its facilities are satisfactory, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) whether these procedures include arrangements which enable the UK recognised body to:(a) acknowledge complaints promptly;(b) consider and investigate these complaints objectively, promptly and thoroughly; (c) provide a timely reply to the complainant; and(d) keep adequate records of complaints and investigations;(2)
In assessing whether the arrangements include procedures for the fair, independent and impartial resolution of appeals against decisions of a UK recognised body, the FCA3 may have regard to at least the following factors: 3(1) the appeal procedures of the UK recognised body, including the composition and roles of any appeal committees or tribunals, and their relationship to the governing body; (2) the arrangements made to ensure prompt hearings of appeals from decisions made by
In assessing whether a UK recognised body's arrangements include appropriate provision for ensuring the application of any financial penalties in ways described in the recognition requirement, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the UK recognised body's policy regarding the application of financial penalties; (2) the arrangements made for applying that policy in individual cases; but the FCA3 does not consider that it is necessary for UK recognised bodies to follow any specific
Principle 4 requires a firm to maintain adequate financial resources. GENPRU 2 sets out provisions that deal specifically with the adequacy of that part of a firm's financial resources that consists of capital resources. The adequacy of a firm'scapital resources needs to be assessed both by that firm and the appropriate regulator. Through its rules, the appropriate regulator sets minimum capital resources requirements for firms. It also reviews a firm's own assessment of its
For the purposes of GENPRU 2.1.9 R, a firm should have systems in place to enable it to be certain whether it has adequate capital resources to comply with GENPRU 2.1.13 R and the main BIPRU firm Pillar 1 rules (as applicable) at all times. This does not necessarily mean that a firm needs to measure the precise amount of its capital resources and its CRR on a daily basis. A firm should, however, be able to demonstrate the adequacy of its capital resources at any particular time
The appropriate regulator may impose a higher capital requirement than the minimum requirement set out in this section as part of the firm's Part 4A permission (see GENPRU 1.2 (Adequacy of financial resources), BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards) and INSPRU 7.1 (Individual capital assessment)).
On the failure of
a third party with which client money is
held, a firm must notify the FCA:(1) as
soon as it becomes aware, of the failure of
any bank, other broker or settlement agent or
other entity with which it has placed, or to which it has passed, client money; and(2) as
soon as reasonably practical, whether it intends to make good any shortfall that has arisen or may arise and
of the amounts involved.
If FCA2 staff recommend that action be taken and they consider that the
decision falls within the responsibility of a senior
staff committee:2(1) in general the FCA2 staff's recommendation will go before the senior
staff committee;2(2) in urgent statutory
notice cases for which a senior
staff committee is responsible, the decision to give the statutory notice may be taken by the chairman
or, if he is unavailable, a deputy chairman of the senior
staff committee, and, if it is practicable,
In the circumstances described
in DEPP 4.2.1 G (4) the FCA2 considers
that it may be necessary for an FCA2 director of division or member of a senior
staff committee to take the decision to give a supervisory notice even if he has been involved
in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, as permitted
by section 395(3) of the Act.
Where practicable, however, FCA2 staff will seek to ensure that the FCA2 director or committee member has not been so involved.2222
In an exceptionally urgent case the decision to give a supervisory notice may be taken by a member of the FCA's1 executive of at least director of division level if:1(1) FCA1 staff consider that the action should be taken before a recommendation to the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC can be made; and1(2) an urgent decision on the proposed action is necessary to protect the interests of consumers.
In the circumstances described in DEPP 3.4.3 G, the FCA1 considers that it may be necessary for an FCA1 director of division to take the decision to give the supervisory notice even if he has been involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, as permitted by section 395(3) of the Act. Where practicable, however, FCA1 staff will seek to ensure that the FCA1 director has not been so involved.1111
Recognised Auction Platforms Regulations, regulation 13
(1) In considering whether [an RAP] or applicant satisfies the [RAP recognition requirements], the [FCA1] may- (a) treat compliance by the [RAP] or applicant with the [recognition requirements or MiFID implementing requirements] applying to it as a [UK RIE] as conclusive evidence that the [RAP] or applicant satisfies any equivalent [RAP recognition requirements] applying to it under these [RAP regulations], taking into account any arrangements that would be necessary to meet the [RAP recognition requirements], and (b) take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned. 1 |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), [an RAP] or applicant may satisfy [RAP recognition requirements] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any other person. |
(3) Where [an RAP] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by these [RAP regulations] on the [RAP] or applicant to satisfy the [RAP recognition requirements], but it is in addition [an RAP recognition requirement] applying to the [RAP] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
Where a UK recognised body has taken any disciplinary action against any member or any employee of a member, in respect of a breach of a rule relating to the carrying on by the UK recognised body of any of its regulatory functions, that body must immediately notify the FCA1of that event, and give:1(1) the name of the person concerned;(2) details of the disciplinary action taken by the UK recognised body; and(3) the UK recognised body's reasons for taking that disciplinary act
Where an appeal is lodged against any disciplinary action referred to in REC 3.20.1 R, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and:1(1) the name of the appellant and the grounds on which the appeal is based, immediately; and(2) the outcome of the appeal, when known.
If a firm decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the appropriate regulator including: (1) a scheme of operations; and (2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met in full as they fall due.
Under Principle 11, the appropriate regulator normally expects to be notified by a firm when it decides to cease effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of one or more classes of contract of insurance (see SUP 15.3.8 G). At the same time, the appropriate regulator would normally expect the firm to discuss with it the need for the firm to apply to vary its permission (see SUP 6.2.6 G and SUP 6.2.7 G) and, if appropriate, to submit a scheme of operations in accordance with