Related provisions for COND 1.1A.6
1 - 20 of 45 items.
11Article 24A(2) of the RAO provides that bidding in emissions auctions does not form part of any other regulated activity and so, although in the FCA's view this activity broadly equates to the regulated activities of dealing in investments as principal, dealing in investments as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, a person seeking to carry on this activity will only require permission for bidding
This activity covers advice in the form of a recommendation given to a retail consumer. The recommendation must relate to a stakeholder product and certain conditions must be met. These conditions are based on the need for the adviser to make an assessment of the consumer's needs based on the answers that the consumer provides to a series of pre-scripted questions. A fuller description of the activity is given in PERG 2.7.14B G and explains what is meant by "retail customer".
Certain activities carried on in connection with business at Lloyds will be regulated. In addition to those already mentioned (arranging deals in the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate or membership of a Lloyd'ssyndicate), there are three other regulated activities as follows.(1) Managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's is a regulated activity. 'Managing agent' is defined in article 3(1) of the Regulated Activities Order.(2)
The descriptions of FCA significant-influence functions, other than the FCA required functions, and, if the firm is a MiFID investment firm, the FCA governing functions do not extend to activities carried on by a firm whose principal purpose is to carry on activities other than regulated activities and which is:(1) an oil market participant; or(2) a service company; or(3) an energy market participant; or(4) a wholly owned subsidiary of:(a) a local authority; or(b) a registered
(1) Any firm permitted to 5carry5 on any of the activities within each of the RAGs set out in column (1) of the table in SUP 16.12.4 R must:(a) (i) unless (ii) or (iii) 11applies, submit to the appropriate regulator98 the duly completed data items or other items applicable to the firm as set out in the provision referred to in column (2) of that table;98(ii) unless (iii) applies, where 11 a firm is required to submit completed data items for 11more than one RAG, that11firm must
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
1In determining the weight to be given to any relevant matter, the FCA will consider its significance in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, in the context of its ability to supervise the firm adequately, having regard to the FCA'sstatutory objectives. In this context, a series of matters may be significant when taken together, even though each of them in isolation might not give serious cause for concern.
3The Society must immediately inform the appropriate regulator35 in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the appropriate regulator35 may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
Application of article 33 to arrangements for making introductions. This table belongs to PERG 5.6.20 G.
Type of introduction |
Applicability of exclusion |
|
1 |
Introductions are purely for the purpose of the provision of independent advice – Introducer is completely indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given. |
Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2). |
2 |
Introduction is one-off or otherwise not part of pre-existing ongoing arrangements that envisage such introduction being made. |
Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2). |
3 |
Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given, but is indifferent to whether or not the transactions may involve a contract of insurance. |
Exclusion will be available provided the introduction was made with a view to the provision of independent advice on investments generally. |
4 |
Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given (for example, because he expects to receive a percentage of the commission), and introductions specifically relate to contracts of insurance. |
Exclusion is not available. If introducer is an unauthorised person, he will need authorisation or exemption as an appointed representative. If introducer is an authorised person (such as an IFA introducing to a general insurance broker), he will need to vary his Part IV permission accordingly. If introducer is an appointed representative, he will need to ensure that his agreement covers making such arrangements. |
Appointed representatives and the persons exempt under miscellaneous provisions cannot be exempt in relation to some regulated activities and authorised in relation to others. If a person is already authorised, and proposes to carry on additional regulated activities in respect of which he would otherwise be exempt as an appointed representative or under miscellaneous provisions, he must seek an extension to his existing permission to cover those additional activities. A person
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
A UCITS qualifier has permission under paragraph 2 of Schedule 5 to the Act, to carry on, as far as is appropriate to the capacity in which it acts in relation to the scheme:88(1) the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme; and(2) any activity in connection with, or for the purposes of, the scheme (including the regulated activity of managing a UCITS).88
The exclusion applies for introductions to:(1) an authorised person who has permission to carry on a regulated activity specified in article 25A (Arranging regulated mortgage contracts) or article 53A (Advising on regulated mortgage contracts) or article 61(1) (Entering into a regulated mortgage contract as lender); introducers can check the status of an authorised person and its permission by visiting the Financial Services Register1 at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/;11(2) an
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 6.7.8 R:(1) particulars of the licence, permission or authorisation which has been or is to be revoked or modified, including particulars of the ROIEs1regulated activities to which it relates;1(2) an explanation of how the revocation or modification restricts or will restrict the ROIE1 in carrying on any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1(3) the date on which the revocation or modification
In order to be authorised, a person must have permission to carry on the regulated activities in question. What the permission needs to cover may differ according to whether the regulated activity being carried on relates to units or shares. So, for example, a body corporate that is an open-ended investment company will need permission if it carries on the regulated activity of dealing as principal or agent, arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to transactions