Related provisions for RCB 3.6.3

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SUP 15.10.4GRP
(1) Notification of suspicious transactions to the FCA4 requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction might constitute market abuse. In particular a firm will need to be able to explain the basis for its suspicion when notifying the FCA4 (see SUP 15.10)4. Certain transactions by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious, but might deliver such indications of possible market abuse,
SUP 15.10.7RRP
An investment firm or a credit institution making a notification to the FCA4 under this section may do so:4(1) by mail to:Market Conduct Team25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS;4 or(2) by electronic mail to market.abuse@fca.org.uk;44(3) by facsimile to the Market Conduct Team on 020 7066 40914; or4(4) by telephone to the market abuse helpline 020 7066 49004. [Note: Article 10 2004/72/EC]
REC 1.1.2GRP
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
REC 1.1.3GRP
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
DISP 1.3.8GRP
4Firms are not required to notify the name of the individual to the FCA or the Financial Ombudsman Service but would be expected to do so promptly on request. There is no bar on a firm appointing different individuals to have the responsibility at different times where this is to accommodate part-time or flexible working.
COLL 11.4.3RRP
(1) Where a depositary of a master UCITS detects any irregularities with regards to the scheme which may have a negative impact on the relevant feeder UCITS, the depositary must immediately inform:(a) the FCA;(b) the feeder UCITS or, where applicable, its management company; and(c) the depositary of the feeder UCITS.(2) The irregularities referred to in (1) include, but are not limited to:(a) errors in the valuation of the scheme property performed in accordance with COLL 6.3.3
COLL 11.4.4GRP
(1) When notifying the FCAof any irregularities in accordance with COLL 11.4.3R (1), the depositary of the master UCITS should also inform the depositary of the feeder UCITS how the master UCITS or its authorised fund manager has resolved or proposes to resolve the irregularity.(2) Where the depositary of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is informed by the depositary of a master UCITS of an irregularity and is not satisfied that the resolution or proposed resolution is in
SUP 3.2.5GRP
4It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the insurance intermediary is an exempt insurance intermediary and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.6
SUP 3.2.6GRP
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
SYSC 19C.3.43GRP
Variable remuneration can be awarded to BIPRU Remuneration Code staff in the form of retention awards where it is compatible with the BIPRU Remuneration Code general requirement to do so. The FCA considers this is likely to be the case only where a firm is undergoing a major restructuring and a good case can be made for retention of particular key staff members on prudential grounds. Proposals to give retention awards should form part of any notice of the restructuring proposals
TC 2.1.31RRP
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
TC 2.1.33GRP
17The Retail Investment Adviser Competence Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under TC 2.1.31 R may be found at the FCA's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/being-regulated/approved/notification-of-competence.
COLL 12.3.4RRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company which applies to manage a UCITS scheme under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act must provide the FCA with the following documents:(a) the written agreement that has been entered into with the depositary of the scheme, as referred to in COLL 6.6.4 R (6) (General duties of the depositary);(b) information on any delegation arrangements it has made regarding the functions of investment management and administration, as referred to in Annex
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
SUP 16.9.2GRP
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FCA6 receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FCA6 is in a better position to pursue the statutory objective6 of the protection of consumers.3666
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the appropriate regulator when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
BIPRU 8.4.18RRP
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
SYSC 4.2.7RRP
A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA of the names of the senior personnel of the firm and of every person succeeding them in office.[Note: article 8(1)(c) of AIFMD]
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
COLL 2.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation),2section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes) or section 261C of the Act (Applications for authorisation of contractual schemes)2.2(2) COLLG 3 (The FCA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FCA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations)
COLL 6.6.7RRP
The ACD must immediately notify the FCA in writing if the ICVC's capital falls below the minimum or exceeds the maximum stated in the instrument of incorporation.
COLL 6.6.11GRP
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FCA would reasonably view as significant.
SUP 11.2.5GRP
Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any
REC 2.6.6UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7E

2The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that the [UK RIE] must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a regulated market operated by it any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.