Related provisions for REC 6.5.1
21 - 40 of 372 items.
In addition, under section 290A
of the Act (Refusal of recognition
on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition
order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory
provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's
business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
(1) 6A must be capable of being effectively supervised by the FCA having regard to all the circumstances including-(a) the nature (including the complexity) of the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(b) the complexity of any products that A provides or will provide in carrying on those activities;(c) the way in which A’s business is organised;(d) if A is a member of a group, whether membership of the group is likely to prevent the FCA’s effective supervision
6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
Where the amount or quality of capital which the FCA considers a firm should hold to meet the overall financial adequacy rule or as a capital planning buffer is not the same as that which results from a firm'sICAAP, the FCA usually expects to discuss any such difference with the firm. Where necessary, the FCA may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) to assist in such circumstances.
If, after discussion, the FCA and a firm still do not agree on an adequate level of capital, the FCA may consider using its powers under section55L of the Act on its own initiative to require the firm1 to hold capital in line with the FCA's view of the capital necessary to comply with the overall financial adequacy rule. In deciding whether it should use its powers under section 55L,1the FCA will take into account the amount and quality of the capital planning buffer which the
Where a firm'scapital planning buffer is being drawn down due to circumstances other than those in IFPRU 2.3.26 G, such as poor planning or mismanagement, the FCA may ask the firm for more detailed plans for it to restore its capital planning buffer. In the light of the relevant circumstances, the FCA may consider taking other remedial actions, which may include using its powers under section 55L of the Act on its own initiative, to impose a requirement on a firm.11
(1) 15A must be a fit and proper person having regard to all the circumstances, including-(a) A’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that A’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers and the integrity of the UK financial system;(d) whether A has complied and is complying with requirements imposed
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FCA15 may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective
(1) [deleted]1515(2) Examples of the kind of general considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act include, but are not limited to, whether the firm:1515(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
Where an ROIE1 includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FCA's1 assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it must include particulars
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
(1) 8The resources of A must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A has appropriate resources include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by A;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, A; and(c) A’s membership of a group and any effect which that membership may have.(3) The matters which
(1) The non-financial resources of B must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether the condition in sub-paragraph (1) is met include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by B;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, B;(c) B’s a member
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the appropriate regulator may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the appropriate regulator should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the appropriate regulator may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
The circumstances in which the FCA5 may vary a firm'sPart 4A permission5 on
its own initiative or impose
a requirement on a firm5 under sections 55J or 55L5 of the Act include
where it appears to the FCA5 that:5555(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions for which the FCA is
responsible5 is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to meet any of the FCA's5 statutory objectives under the Act; or5335(3) a firm has
not
The FCA5 may also use its own-initiative powers5 for
enforcement purposes. EG 82 sets out in detail the FCA's5 powers under sections 55J and 55L of the Act5 and
the circumstances under which the FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FCA5 will use these powers for supervision purposes.55255555
The FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 only in respect of a firm's5Part 4A permission5; that is, a permission granted
to a firm under sections 55E or 55F5 of the Act (Giving
permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming
Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier,
this power applies only in relation to any top-up
permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers
under Part XIII of the Act in
relation to the permission
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FCA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FCA cannot
(1) 8In relation to the cancellation or deferral of the payment of a coupon in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.64R (4) and GENPRU 2.2.64R (5), GENPRU 2.2.68A R, or GENPRU 2.2.69B R, the appropriate regulator expects that situations where a coupon may need to be cancelled or deferred will be resolved through analysis and discussion between the firm and the appropriate regulator. If the appropriate regulator and the firm do not agree on the cancellation or deferral of the payment
7The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the appropriate regulator's use of the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) and section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act. The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to give assistance to a skilled person and, where a firm is required to appoint a skilled person, to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person. These rules are designed to
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1The FCA's assessment of a firm's satisfaction of this threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2F and 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act will not necessarily be limited to a firm'sregulated activities if the FCA believes the firm's other business activities, if any, may impact on a firm'sregulated activities.
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
Paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 of2 the Act,7 regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and 3 regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations7 enable the FCA18 to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy ,5FOS levies and CFEB levies5 are set out in FEES 6.1,5FEES 5.2 and FEES 7.1.4 G5 respectively. Case fees payable to the FOS Ltd are set out in FEES 5.5A. 621Fee-paying payment service providers
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraphs 23(7) and 20(1)(b) 18 however, have not been included .7 These are, respectively, the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected