Related provisions for LR 11.1.7B

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SUP 4.3.8GRP
The appropriate regulator is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section1 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the appropriate regulator's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.1
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R1 or an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 11010
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FCA or PRA10 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it have the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively10 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).10155110101010
PERG 6.6.2GRP
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing
PERG 6.6.3GRP
Contracts, under which the amount and timing of the payments made by the recipient make it reasonable to conclude that there is a genuine pre-payment for services to be rendered in response to a future contingency, are unlikely to be regarded as insurance. In general, the FCA expects that this requirement will be satisfied where there is a commercially reasonable and objectively justifiable relationship between the amount of the payment and the cost of providing the contract
PERG 6.6.7GRP
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FCA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
MCOB 5.9.1RRP
(1) 1A firm must, as soon as a customer expresses an interest in becoming a SRB agreement seller, ensure that the 2disclosures and warnings set out in (1A) are 2made to the customer2, both orally and confirmed in writing, and he is given an adequate opportunity to consider them. The firm must not demand or accept any fees, charges or other sums from the customer, or undertake any action that commits the customer in any way to entering into a specific agreement, until:2222(a) 2the
MCOB 5.9.3RRP
(1) A SRB intermediary2must ensure that, on first making contact with a prospective SRB agreement seller, whether or not he is the firm'scustomer, who is proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement with an unauthorised SRB agreement provider, it provides him with the written warning in (2) before he enters into any such agreement.2(2) The warning in (1) is that:(a) the agreement provider is not authorised or regulated by the FCA, and that key protections under
MCOB 5.9.5GRP
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
SUP 6.1.3AGRP
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the relevant regulator's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part 4A permission7 has been cancelled at the firm's request.727
SUP 6.1.6GRP
7This chapter does not cover the FCA's use of its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission or its own-initiative requirement power to impose, vary or cancel a requirement (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
LR 10.2.5GRP
For the purposes of LR 10.2.4R (1), the FCA considers the following indemnities not to be exceptional:(1) those customarily given in connection with sale and purchase agreements;(2) those customarily given to underwriters or placing agents in an underwriting or placing agreement;(3) those given to advisers against liabilities to third parties arising out of providing advisory services; and(4) any other indemnity that is specifically permitted to be given to a director or auditor
LR 10.2.6GRP
If the calculation under LR 10.2.4R (1) produces an anomalous result, the FCA may disregard the calculation and modify that rule to substitute other relevant indicators of the size of the indemnity or other arrangement given, for example 1% of market capitalisation.
LR 10.2.11GRP
The FCA may modify these rules to require the aggregation of transactions in circumstances other than those specified in LR 10.2.10 R.Note: If an issuer is proposing to enter into a transaction that could be a Class 1 transaction or reverse takeover it is required under LR 8 to obtain the guidance of a sponsor to assess the potential application of LR 10.
SUP 13A.4.1AGRP
4An EEA UCITS management company may not exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme from a branch in the United Kingdom until approved by the FCA11 to do so (see SUP 13A.3.1C G).11
SUP 13A.4.4AGRP
(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
SYSC 6.1.1AGRP
10The FCA provides guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime in FC (Financial crime: a guide for firms).
SYSC 6.1.2RRP
A common platform firm and a management company8 must, taking into4account the nature, scale and complexity of its business, and the nature and range of financial services and activities8 undertaken in the course of that business, establish, implement and maintain adequate policies and procedures designed to detect any risk of failure by the firm to comply with its obligations under the regulatory system, as well as associated risks, and put in place adequate measures and procedures
PERG 4.4.1GRP
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a first legal mortgage on land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom; and(3) at least 40% of that
PERG 4.4.1AGRP
(1) Article 61(3)(c) of the Regulated Activities Order states that credit includes a cash loan and any other form of financial accommodation. Although 'financial accommodation' has a potentially wide meaning, its scope is limited by the terms used in the definition of a regulated mortgage contract set out in PERG 4.4.1 G. Whatever form the financial accommodation may take, article 61(3)(a) envisages that it must involve an obligation to repay on the part of the individual who
PERG 4.4.7GRP
The expression 'as or in connection with a dwelling' set out in PERG 4.4.1G (3) means that loans to buy a small house with a large garden would in general be covered. However, if at the time of entering into the contract the intention was for the garden to be used for some other purpose – for example, if it was intended that a third party were to have use of the garden – the contract would not constitute a regulated mortgage contract. Furthermore, the FCA would not regard a loan
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the appropriate regulator will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The appropriate regulator should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10A.14.17 R and SUP 10B.12.188), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For
FIT 2.1.2GRP
In considering the matters in FIT 2.1.1 G, the appropriate regulator will look at whether the person's reputation might have an adverse impact upon the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed and at the person's responsibilities.
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the appropriate regulator will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences
IFPRU 6.1.2GRP
This chapter:(1) implements article 101 of CRD; (2) contains the rule that exercises the discretion afforded to the FCA as competent authority under article 327(2) of the EU CRR; and(3) contains the guidance for market risk.
IFPRU 6.1.5GRP
(1) The methodology for the identification of the risks in IFPRU 6.1.4 R and the calculation of those additional own funds for value-at-risk (VaR) and stressed value-at-risk (stressed VaR) models is called the "RNIV framework". A firm is responsible for identifying these additional risks and this should be an opportunity for risk managers and management to better understand the shortcomings of the firm's models. Following this initial assessment, the FCA will engage with the firm
IFPRU 6.1.6GRP
A firm that wishes to use own estimates for delta for the purposes of the standardised approach for options, should provide the FCA with confirmation that it meets the minimum standards set out in IFPRU 6.1.8 G to IFPRU 6.1.15 R (Minimum standards for own estimates of delta) for each type of option for which it calculates delta. Where a firm meets the minimum standards, it can expect to be permitted to use own estimates of delta for the relevant option.
PR 2.2.4RRP
An issuer, offeror or person requesting admission who already has a registration document approved by the FCA is required to draw up only the securities note and the summary when transferable securities are offered or a request is made for admission to trading. [Note: article 12.1 PD]
PR 2.2.9RRP
If the final terms of the offer are not included in eitherthe base prospectus or a supplementary prospectus:(1) the final terms must be provided to investors and filed with the FCA, and made available to the public, in accordance with PR 3.2.4 R to PR 3.2.6 R the PD Regulation as soon as practicable after each offer is made and, if possible, before the offer begins;(2) the base prospectus must disclose the criteria and/or the conditions in accordance with which the above elements
PR 2.2.10EURP

Articles 25 and 26 of the PD Regulation provide for the format of prospectuses and base prospectuses:

Format of the prospectus

25.1

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [PR 2.2.1 R] to draw up a prospectus as a single document, the prospectus shall be composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

the summary provided for in [section 87A(5) of the Act];

(3)

the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security covered by the issue;

(4)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

2.

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [LR 3.1.1 R], to draw up a prospectus composed of separate documents, the securities note and the registration document shall be each composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

as the case may be, the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security covered by the issue;

(3)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

3.

In the cases mentioned in paragraphs 1 and 2, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall be free in defining the order in the presentation of the required information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

4.

Where the order of the items does not coincide with the order of the information provided for in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up, the [FCA] may ask the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market to provide a cross reference list for the purpose of checking the prospectus before its approval. Such list shall identify the pages where each item can be found in the prospectus. [see PR 3.1.1 R (3)2]

2

5.

Where the summary of a prospectus must be supplemented according to [section 87G of the Act], the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall decide on a case-by-case basis whether to integrate the new information in the original summary by producing a new summary, or to produce a supplement to the summary.

If the new information is integrated in the original summary, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall ensure that investors can easily identify the changes, in particular by way of footnotes.

2In any case, a new filing of final terms and summary of the individual issue annexed thereto corresponding to offers made prior to the production of a new summary or a supplement to the summary shall not be required.

Format of the base prospectus and its related final terms

26.1

Where an issuer, an offeror or a person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market chooses, according to [PR 2.2.7 R] to draw up a base prospectus, the base prospectus shall be composed of the following parts in the following order:

(1)

a clear and detailed table of contents;

(2)

the summary provided for in [section 87A of the Act];

(3)

the risk factors linked to the issuer and the type of security or securities covered by the issue(s);

(4)

the other information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up.

2.

Notwithstanding paragraph 1, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall be free in defining the order in the presentation of the required information items included in the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up. The information on the different securities contained in the base prospectus shall be clearly segregated.

3.

Where the order of the items does not coincide with the order of the information provided for by the schedules and building blocks according to which the prospectus is drawn up, the [FCA] may ask the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market to provide a cross reference list for the purpose of checking the prospectus before its approval. Such list should identify the pages where each item can be found in the prospectus. [see PR 3.1.1 R (3)2]

2

4.

In case the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market has previously filed a registration document for a particular type of security and, at a later stage, chooses to draw up base prospectus in conformity with the conditions provided for in [PR 2.2.7 R], the base prospectus shall contain:

(1)

the information contained in the previously or simultaneously filed and approved registration document which shall be incorporated by reference, following the conditions provided for in Article 28 of this Regulation;

(2)

the information which would otherwise be contained in the relevant securities note less the final terms where the final terms are not included in the base prospectus.

5.

The final terms shall be presented in the form of a separate document or be included in the base prospectus. The final terms shall be prepared in an easily analysable and comprehensible form.2

2

The items of the relevant securities note schedule and its building blocks, which are included in the base prospectus shall not be reproduced in the final terms.2

2

The issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market may include any of the additional information set out in Annex XXI in the final terms.2

2

2A clear and prominent statement shall be inserted in the final terms indicating:

(a)

that the final terms have been prepared for the purpose of Article 5(4) of Directive 2003/71/EC and must be read in conjunction with the base prospectus and its supplement(s);

(b)

where the base prospectus and its supplement(s) are published in accordance with Article 14 of Directive 2003/71/EC;

(c)

that in order to get the full information both the base prospectus and the final terms must be read in conjunction;

(d)

that a summary of the individual issue is annexed to the final terms.

The final terms may include the signature of the legal representative of the issuer or the person responsible for the prospectus according to the relevant national law or the signature of both.

5a

The final terms and the summary of the individual issue shall be drawn up in the same language respectively as the approved version of the form of the final terms of the base prospectus and as the summary of the base prospectus.

When the final terms are communicated to the competent authority of the host Member State or, if there is more than one host Member State, to the competent authorities of the host Member States, in accordance with Article 5(4) of Directive 2003/71/EC, the following language rules shall apply to the final terms and the annexed summary:

(a)

where the summary of the base prospectus is to be translated pursuant to Article 19 of Directive 2003/71/EC, the summary of the individual issue annexed to the final terms shall be subject to the same translation requirements as the summary of the base prospectus;

(b)

where the base prospectus is to be translated pursuant to Article 19 of Directive 2003/71/EC, the final terms and the summary of the individual issue annexed thereto, shall be subject to the same translation requirements as the base prospectus.

The issuer shall communicate those translations, together with the final terms, to the competent authority of the host Member State or, if there is more than one host Member State, to the competent authorities of the host Member States.

6.

Where a base prospectus relates to different securities, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall include a single summary in the base prospectus for all securities. The information on the different securities contained in the summary, however, shall be clearly segregated.

7.

Where the summary of a base prospectus must be supplemented according to [section 87G of the Act], the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall decide on a case-by-case basis whether to integrate the new information in the original summary by producing a new summary, or by producing a supplement to the summary.

If the new information is integrated in the original summary of the base prospectus by producing a new summary, the issuer, the offeror or the person asking for admission to trading on a regulated market shall ensure that investors can easily identify the changes, in particular by way of footnotes.

8.

Issuers, offerors or persons asking for admission to trading on a regulated market may compile in one single document two or more different base prospectuses.
43
COLL 12.3.4RRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company which applies to manage a UCITS scheme under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act must provide the FCA with the following documents:(a) the written agreement that has been entered into with the depositary of the scheme, as referred to in COLL 6.6.4 R (6) (General duties of the depositary);(b) information on any delegation arrangements it has made regarding the functions of investment management and administration, as referred to in Annex
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
COLL 12.3.6RRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must establish appropriate procedures and arrangements to make information available at the request of the public or the FCA.(2) The EEA UCITS management company must ensure that the procedures and arrangements it establishes in accordance with (1), enable the FCA to obtain any information it requests directly from the management company.[Note: article 15 second paragraph and article 21(2) third paragraph, of the
SYSC 19A.1.4GRP
Subject to the requirements of SYSC 19A.1.5 R, in the appropriate regulator's view SYSC 19A.1.3 R does not require a firm to breach requirements of applicable contract or employment law.[Note: recital 14 of the Third Capital Requirements Directive (Directive 2010/76/EU)]
SYSC 19A.1.7GRP
(1) The Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the appropriate regulator expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and
SYSC 19A.1.8GRP
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should in particular note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5 G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures and practices to be
LR 9.5.2GRP
The FCA may modify LR 9.5.1R (1) to allow the placing to relate to less than 25% if it is satisfied that requiring at least 25% would be detrimental to the success of the issue.
LR 9.5.3GRP
In a rights issue, the FCA may list the equity securities6 at the same time as they 6are admitted to trading in nil paid form. On the equity securities6 being paid up and the allotment becoming unconditional, the listing will continue without any need for a further application to list fully paid securities.
LR 9.5.10AGRP
8On each occasion that the listed company plans to use an on-screen intra-day price it should discuss the source of the price in advance with the FCA. The FCA may be satisfied that there is sufficient justification for its use if the alternative market has an appropriate level of liquidity and the source is one that is widely accepted by the market.
DTR 1A.4.1RRP
1An issuer must pay the fees set out in DTR App 2R to the FCA when they are due.
COLL 5.2.10BRRP
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
COLL 5.2.10EGRP
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
COLL 5.2.22AGRP
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
COLL 5.2.35GRP
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
COLL 6.6.7RRP
The ACD must immediately notify the FCA in writing if the ICVC's capital falls below the minimum or exceeds the maximum stated in the instrument of incorporation.
COLL 6.6.11GRP
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FCA would reasonably view as significant.
COLL 6.6.15ARRP
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of
COLL 6.6.16GRP
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
PERG 8.37.2GRP
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
PERG 8.37.5GRP
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
PERG 8.37.14GRP
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
DTR 5.2.2GRP
Cases (a) to (h) in DTR 5.2.1 R identify situations where a person may be able to control the manner in which voting rights are exercised and where, (taking account of any aggregation with other holdings) a notification to the issuer may need to be made. In the FCA's view:(1) Case (e) produces the result that it is always necessary for the parent undertaking of a controlled undertaking to aggregate its holding with any holding of the controlled undertaking (subject to the exemptions
DTR 5.2.3GRP
A person falling within Cases (a) to (h) is an indirect holder of shares for the purpose of the definition of shareholder. These indirect holdings have to be aggregated, but also separately identified in a notification to the issuer. Apart from those identified in the Cases (a) to (h), the FCA does not expect any other significant category "indirect shareholder" to be identified. Cases (a) to (h) are also relevant in determining whether a person is an indirect holder of qualifying