Related provisions for IFPRU 6.3.12

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IFPRU 4.14.1RRP
For the purpose of article 282(6) of the EU CRR (Hedging sets), a firm must apply the CCR Mark-to-market method as set out in Part Three, Title II, Chapter 6, Section 3 (Mark-to-market method) of the EU CRR to:(1) transactions with non-linear risk profile; or(2) payment legs and transactions with debt instruments as underlying;for which it cannot determine the delta or the modified duration, as the case may be, using an internal model approved by the FCA under Part Three Title
IFPRU 4.14.2RRP
For the purpose of article 298(4) of the EU CRR (Effects of recognition of netting as risk-reducing), a firm must use the original maturity of the interest-rate contract.
IFPRU 4.14.4GRP
(1) This guidance sets out the FCA's expectations for granting permission to a firm to use its own one-sided credit valuation adjustment internal models (an "internal CVA model") for the purpose of estimating the maturity factor "M", as proposed under article 162(2)(h) of the EU CRR (Maturity).(2) In the context of counterparty credit risk, the maturity factor "M" is intended to increase the own funds requirements to reflect potential higher risks associated with medium and long-term
IFPRU 4.14.5GRP
(1) This guidance sets out the FCA's expectations for permitting a firm with the permission to use the Internal Model Method set out in Part Three, Title II, Chapter 6, Section 6 (Internal model method) and the permission to use an internal VaR model for specific risk set out in Part Three, Title IV, Chapter 5 (Use of internal models) associated with traded debt instruments to set to 1 the maturity factor "M" defined in article 162 of the EU CRR.(2) In the context of counterparty
IFPRU 1.4.1RRP
A firm which has applied for, or has been granted, a permission under the EU CRR must notify the FCA immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or permission. 11
IFPRU 1.4.2GRP
The reference to 'permission' in IFPRU 1.4.1 R includes any approval, consent or agreement referred to under the EU CRR for which the FCA has been conferred powers as competent authority by the EU CRR.
SYSC 12.1.14RRP
SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to a firm that is:(1) [deleted]88(2) a CRRfirm;10 or10(3) anon-CRRfirm10 that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group.10
SYSC 12.1.15RRP
In the case of a firm that:(1) is aCRRfirm; and810(2) has a mixed-activity holding company as a parent undertaking;the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8 R must include sound reporting and accounting procedures and other mechanisms that are adequate to identify, measure, monitor and control transactions between the firm'sparent undertakingmixed-activity holding company and any of the mixed-activity holding company'ssubsidiary
SYSC 12.1.15ARRP
11SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to a BIPRU firm as if it were a CRRfirm but the reference to Remuneration Code is to the BIPRU Remuneration Code.
BIPRU 8.1.2ARRP
3A firm is not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 where any of the following conditions are fulfilled:(1) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by the FCA or PRA under the EUCRR; or(2) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by a competent authority other than the FCA under the EUCRR as implemented by that competent authority.
BIPRU 8.1.2BRRP
3Where a group includes one or more BIPRU firms and one or more IFPRU investment firms which has permission under article 19 of the EUCRR (Exclusion from the scope of prudential consolidation) from the FCA not to be included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member, consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8 applies to those IFPRU investment firms and the BIPRU firms.
BIPRU 8.1.3GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EUCRR, this3 chapter implements articles 71, 73(1) and (2), 125, 126, 127(1), 133 and 134 of the Banking Consolidation Directive and articles 2 (in part), 22-27 and 37(1) (in part) of the Capital Adequacy Directive.3
IFPRU 6.2.1GRP
Article 331(2) of the EU CRR (Interest rate risk in derivative instruments) states conditions that must be met before a firm not using interest rate pre-processing models can fully offset interest-rate risk on derivative instruments. One of the conditions is that the reference rate (for floating-rate positions) or coupon (for fixed-rate positions) should be 'closely matched'. The FCA will normally consider a difference of less than 15 basis points as indicative of the reference
IFPRU 6.2.2GRP
(1) The FCA's starting assumption is that all overshootings should be taken into account for the purpose of the calculation of addends. If a firm believes that an overshooting should not count for that purpose, then it should seek a variation of its VaR model permission under article 363 of the EU CRR (Permission to use internal models) in order to exclude that particular overshooting. The FCA would then decide whether to agree to such a variation. (2) One example of when a firm's
IFPRU 6.2.8GRP
Other futures, forwards, and swaps where a treatment is not specified in article 328 of the EU CRR ((Interest rate futures and forwards) should be treated as positions in zero specific risk securities, each of which:(1) has a zero coupon;(2) has a maturity equal to that of the relevant contract; and(3) is long or short according to the table in IFPRU 6.2.9 G.
IFPRU 3.1.5GRP
Principle 4 requires a firm to maintain adequate financial resources. IFPRU 3 sets out provisions that deal specifically with the adequacy of that part of a firm's financial resources that consists of own funds in addition to Parts Two (Own Funds) and Three (Capital requirements) of the EUCRR.
IFPRU 3.1.6RRP
(1) Subject to (2), an IFPRU investment firm must maintain, at all times, common equity tier 1 capital equal to, or in excess of, the base own funds requirement. (2) For the purpose of (1), the common equity tier 1 capital of an IFPRU investment firm must comprise only of one or more of the items referred to in article 26(1)(a) to (e) of the EU CRR (Common equity tier 1 items).[Note: article 28(1) of CRD]
BIPRU 1.1.4GRP
BIPRU 1.1 implements in part the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EU CRR that permits the FCA to apply the Banking Consolidation Directive and8 the Capital Adequacy Directive. 83
BIPRU 1.1.23RRP
(1) [deleted](2) [deleted](a) [deleted](b) [deleted](c) [deleted](d) [deleted](e) [deleted](f) [deleted](3) [deleted]
IFPRU 4.10.1GRP
The FCA expects a firm to have a validation process that includes the following:(1) standards of objectivity, accuracy, stability and conservatism that it designs its ratings systems to meet and processes that establish whether its rating systems meet those standards;(2) standards of accuracy of calibration (ie, whether outcomes are consistent with estimates) and discriminative power (ie, the ability to rank-order risk) that it designs its rating systems to meet and processes
IFPRU 4.10.2GRP
In IFPRU 4.10.1 G:(1) developmental evidence means evidence that substantiates whether the logic and quality of a rating system (including the quantification process) adequately discriminates between different levels of, and delivers accurate estimates of, PD, EL, LGD and conversion factors (as applicable); and(2) process verification means the process of establishing whether the methods used in a rating system to discriminate between different levels of risk and to quantify
SYSC 4.3A.7RRP
For the purposes of SYSC 4.3A.5 R and SYSC 4.3A.6 R:(1) directorships in organisations which do not pursue predominantly commercial objectives shall not count; and(2) the following shall count as a single directorship:(a) executive or non-executive directorships held within the same group; or(b) executive or non-executive directorships held within:(i) firms that are members of the same institutional protection scheme provided that the conditions set out in article 113(7) of the
SYSC 4.3A.11RRP
A CRR firm that maintains a website must explain on the website how it complies with the requirements of SYSC 4.3A.1 R to SYSC 4.3A.3 R and SYSC 4.3A.4 R to SYSC 4.3A.11 R.[Note: article 96 of CRD]
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA78

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957829578295782978297829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27829782978

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the

appropriate regulator

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the

appropriate regulator

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the

appropriate regulator

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the

appropriate regulator's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the appropriate regulator would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

except in the cases specified in FEES 3 Annex 6A

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 78 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17878111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA77 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.77

77The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7777

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78
78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

BIPRU 5.1.2GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EUCRR,2BIPRU 5 implements, in part, Articles 78(1) and 91 to 93 and Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
IFPRU 4.13.1RRP
Where a system wide failure of a settlement system, a clearing system or a CCP occurs, the own funds requirements calculated in articles 378 (Settlement/delivery risk) and 379 (Free deliveries) of the EU CRR are waived until the situation is rectified. In this case, the failure of a counterparty to settle a trade shall not be deemed a default for purposes of credit risk.[Note: article 380 of the EU CRR]
IFPRU 1.5.2RRP
A firm must notify the FCA if it adjusts its firm'saccounting reference date under the Commission Regulation made under article 99 of the EU CRR.
BIPRU 14.1.3GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EUCRR,3BIPRU 14 implements:2(1) Article 3(1)(h), Article 17(1), and Article 40; and(2) Annex II;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.
IFPRU 4.1.2GRP
This chapter:(1) implements article 78 of CRD;(2) contains the rules that exercise the discretion afforded to the FCA as competent authority under articles 115, 119(5), 124(2), 125(3), 126(2), 178(1)(b), 243(2), 244(2), 286(2), 298(4) and 380 of the EU CRR; and(3) contains the guidance in relation to the IRB approach, securitisation, counterparty credit risk and credit risk mitigation.
IFPRU 3.3.1GRP
The FCA does not expect that it will waive the application of the Basel 1 floor as contemplated in article 500(2) of the EUCRR.
IFPRU 4.9.1GRP
To be satisfied that the credit risk stress test undertaken by a firm under article 177(2) of the EU CRR is meaningful and considers the effects of severe, but plausible, recession scenarios, the FCA would expect the stress test to be based on an economic cycle that is consistent with IFPRU 2.2.73G(1)(b) (see article 177(2) of the EU CRR)
IFPRU 4.15.1GRP
For purposes of repurchase transactions and securities lending or borrowing transactions, the FCA does not consider that there are any core market participants apart from those entities listed in article 227(3) of the EU CRR.
BIPRU 11.1.2GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EU CRR, the2 purpose of BIPRU 11 is to implement:2(1) (a) Article 68(3);(b) Article 72;(c) Articles 145 to 149; and(d) Annex XII;of the Banking Consolidation Directive; and(2) (a) Article 2, in part;(b) Point 3 of Article 23, in part; and(c) Article 39;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.
IFPRU 5.2.2GRP
A firm may use an AMA in combination with the BIA or TSA, provided it obtains permission from the FCA. In granting such permission, the FCA is required by article 314(3) of the EU CRR (Combined use of different approaches) to impose the following conditions when the AMA is used in combination with BIA or TSA:(1) on the date of first implementation of the AMA, a 'significant' part of the institution's operational risk are captured by that approach; and(2) the institution to commit